AIIMS MBBS 2010 Previous Year Question Papers with Answers

AIIMS MBBS 2010 Previous Year Question Papers with Answers

ANAESTHESIA

1. The volatility of an anesthetic agent is directly proportional to lowering the flow in the portal vein. Portal flow is maximally reduced by –
A. ether
B. halothane
C. isoflurane
D. enflurane
Ans: b.

2. A young boy has sickle cell trait. Which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated?
A. IV regional anaesthesia
B. Brachial plexus block by supraclavicular approach
C. Brachia plexus block by infraclavicular approach
D. Brachial plexus block by axillary approach
Ans: a.

3. Local anaesthesia causing methemoglobinemia –
A. Procaine
B. Prilocaine
C. Etiodicaine
D. Ropivacaine
Ans: b.

ANATOMY

4. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are all except:
A. Cricothyroid
B. Thyrohyoid
C. Hyoepiglottie
D. Cricotracheal
Ans: A.

5. Paneth cells – true is
A. Rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. High zine content
C. Foamy cytoplasm
D. Numerous lysozyme granules
Ans: A.

6. True about prostatic urethra are all except:
A. Trapezoid in cross section
B. Presence of verumontanum
C. Openings of prostatic ducts
D. Contains urethral crest
Ans: A.

7. Cranial nerve not carrying parasympathetic fibres
A. Fourth
B. Seventh
C. Third
D. Ninth
Ans: A.

8. Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of
A. Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
B. Palatine division of maxillary nerve
C. Anterior nasal division of maxillary nerve
D. Inferior alveolar nerve
Ans is none

9. A healthy young athlete is sitting at the edge of the table with knee at 90 degree flexion. He fully extends it. What will happen?
A. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards centre of the patella
B. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards lateral border of patella
C. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards medical border of patella
D. No change in position
Ans: b.

10. Coeliac plexus is located
A. Anterolateral & around the aorta
B. Posterolateral & around the aorta
C. Anteromedical to lumbar sympathetic chain
D. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
Ans: c.

11. Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except:
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Interior of nasal cavity
C. Dural sheath of anterior cranial fossa
D. Ethmoidal air cells
Ans: d.

12. Appendix epiploicae present in
A. Appendix
b. Caecum
C. Rectum
D. Sigmoid colon
Ans: a.

13. All of the following muscles retract the scapula except:
A. Trapezius
B. Rhomboid major
C. Rhomboid minor
D. Levator scapulae
Ans: d.

14. The function of 8th cranial nerve is related to
A. smell
B. taste
C. Touch
D. Balance
Ans: d.

15. Pain insensitive structure in brain is:
A. Falx cerebri
B. Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses
C. Middle meningeal artery
D. Choroid plexus
Ans: d.

16. Which is not supplied by pelvic splanchnic nerves?
A. rectum
B. urinary bladder
C. appendix
D. Uterus
Ans: c.

BIOCHEMISTRY

17. Eukaryotic plasma membrane is made up of all except:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Triglycerides
C. Lecithin
D. Cholesterol
Ans: b.

18. Acetyl coA can be directly converted to all except:
A. glucose
B. fatty acids
C. cholesterol
D. ketone bodies
Ans: a.

19. A 40 yr old woman presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray spine shows calcification of intervertebral discs. On adding Benedict’s reagent to urine, it gives greenish brown precipitate and blue-black supernatant fluid. What is the diagnosis?
A. phenyketonuria
B. alkaptonuria
C. tyrosinemia type-2
D. argininosuccinic aciduria
Ans: b.

20. After overnight fasting, levels of glucose transporters reduced in
A. brain cells
B. RBCs
C. adipocytes
D. hepatocytes
Ans: c.

21. Splicing activity is a function of:
A. mRNA
B. snRNA
C. tRNA
D. rRNA
Ans: b.

22. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA strands can be joined again by:
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA topoisomerase
D. DNA gyrase
Ans: b.

23. True about sickle cells are all, except:
A. Single nucleotide change results in change of glutamine to valine
B. Sticky patch is generated as a result of replacement of a non polar residue with a polar residue
C. HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygotes
D. RFLP results from a single base change
Ans: b.

ENT

24. Infection of CNS spreads in inner ear through
A. Cochlear aqueduct
B. Endolymphatic sac
C. Vestibular aqueduct
D. Hyrtle fissure
Ans: a.

25. Most common site for CSF rhinorrhoea is:
A. Ethmoidal sinuses
B. Maxillary sinuses
C. Frontal sinuses
D. Tegmen tympani
Ans: a.

26. Endolymph in the inner ear:
A. Is a filterate of blood serum
B. Is secreted by stria vascularis
C. Is secreted by basilar membrane
D. Is secreted by hair cells
Ans: b.

27. Bell’s palsy patient comes on day 3. treatment given would be:
A. Intratympanic steroids
B. Oral steroids + vitamin B
C. Oral steroids + Acyclovir
D. Vitamin B + vasodilators
Ans: c.

FORENSIC

28. Heat rupture is characterized by
A. irregular margin
B. Clotted blood
C. regular margin
D. clotted blood vessels
Ans: d.

29. Motorcyclist fracture among the following is
A. ring facture
B. sutural separation
C. comminuted fracture of vault of skull
D. Fracture base of skull into anterior & posterior halves
Ans: d.

30. A child brought with suspected ingestion, presented with dry mouth, dilated pupil, difficulty in swallowing, delirium, dry & warm skin, the substance is:
A. Anti-cholinergic
B. Sympathetic
C. Cholinergic
D. Alpha-blocker
Ans: a.

31. Incisional wound on genital is seen commonly in:
A. accidents
B. Suicides
C. Homicides
D. Postmortem artifact
Ans: c.

32. Destructive power of bullet is determined by:
A. weight of bullet
B. shape of bullet
C. Size of bullet
D. velocity of bullet
Ans: d.

GYNAE & OBSTETRICS

33. Causes of primary amenorrhea are all except –
A. Rokitansky syndrome
B. Sheehan syndrome
C. Kollman syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
Ans: b.

34. A lady with placenta previa delivered a baby. She had excessive bleeding and shock. After resuscitation most likely complication would be –
A. Galactorrhoea
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Loss of menstruation
D. Cushing’s syndrome
Ans: c.

35. The presence of increased levels of which of the following in amniotic fluid is an indicator of open neural tube defect in the fetus?
A. Phosphatidylesterase
B. Acetyl cholinesterase
C. Pseudocholine esterase
D. Butyrylcholine esterase
Ans: b.

36. A 35 yr old P 3+0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy. Best treatment will be –
A. Cryosurgery
B. Conization
C. LEEP
D. Hysterectomy
Ans: c.

37. A pregnant lady had no complaints but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in first trimester. She was prescribed spiramycin but she was non-complaint. Baby was born with hydrocephalous and intracerebral calcification. Which of the these is likely cause?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. CMV
C. Cryptococcus
D. Rubella
Ans: a.

38. Which of the following treatments for menorrhagia is not supported by evidence?
A. Tranexamic acid
B. Ethamylate
C. Combined OCP
D. Progesterone
Ans: b.

39. A pregnant female at 35 wks of pregnancy is diagnosed with SLE. Drugs that can be used to treat are all except:
A. Corticosteroids
B. Sulphasalazine
C. Methotrexate
D. Hydroxychloroquine
Ans: c.

40. Vaginal delivery can be allowed in all except –
A. Monochorionic, monoamniotic twins
B. Mentoanterior
C. Extended breech
D. Dichorionic twins with first vertex & second breech
Ans: a.

41. A lady undergoes total radical hysterectomy for stage Ib Ca cervix. It was found that Ca extends to lower part of body of uterus and upper part of cervix. Next step of management will be –
A. Chemotherapy
B. Radiotherapy
C. Chemoradiation
D. Follow-up
Ans: d.

42. A 35 yr old woman presents with primary infertility & palpable pelvic mass. Her CA-125 level is 0 U/ml. Diagnosis is –
A. Ovarian Ca
B. Endometrioma
C. Tuberculosis
D. Borderline ovarian tumor
Ans: b.

43. Ideal contraceptive for lactating mothers is:
A. Barrier method
B. Combined OCP
C. Lactational amenorrhea
D. Progesterone only pill
Ans: c.

44. Test for ovarian reserve –
A. LH
B. LH/FSH ratio
C. FSH
D. Estradiol
Ans: c.

45. At what gestational age should a pregnancy with cholestasis of pregnancy be terminated?
A. 34 weeks
B. 36 weeks
C. 38 weeks
D. 40 weeks
Ans: c.

46. Clomphene citrate – True statement is –
A. Enclomiphene is anti-estrogenic
B. Increases pregnancy rate 3 times as compared to placebo
C. Incidence of twin pregnancy is 5-6%
D. It has been shown to increase fertility in oligospermic males in randomized controlled trials
Ans: a.

47. Pain of ovarian carcinoma is referred to –
A. back to thigh
B. gluteal region
C. anterior surface of thigh
D. medial surface of thigh
Ans: d.

48. All are seen in gestational diabetes except –
A. Previous macrosomic baby
B. Obesity
C. Malformations
D. Polyhydramnios
Ans: c.

MEDICINE

49. Radiological features of left ventricular heart failure are all, except:
A. kerly B lines
B. cardiomegaly
C. oligenic lung fields
D. increased flow in upper lobe veins
Ans: c.

50. Which is the most common childhood CNS tumor to metastasize outside brain?
A. ependymoma
B. glioblastoma multiforme
C. choroids plexus tumor
D. medulloblastoma
Ans: d.

51. Hypersensitivity vasculitis affects –
A. Post-capillary venules
B. Arterioles
C. Veins
D. Medium-zised arteries
Ans: a.

52. Hyperextensibility with normal elastic recoil is a feature of –
A. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
C. Cutis laxa
D. Scleroderma
Ans: a.

53. Which of the following about artherosclerosis is true?
A. Intake of PUFA associated with decreased risk
B. Thoracic aorta involvement is more severe than abdominal aorta involvement
C. Extent of lesion in veins is same as that in arteries
D. Hypercholesterolemia does not always increase the risk of atherosclerosis per se
Ans: a.

54. A girl presented with severe hyperkalemia and peaked T waves on ECG. Fasted way of shifting potassium intracellularly is –
A. calcium gluconate IV
B. oral resins
C. insulin + glucose
D. Sodium bicarbonate
Ans: c.

55. Features of hypocalcemia are A/E –
A. numbness & tingling
B. circumoral & paresthesis
C. depressed tendon reflexes
D. skin irritability & sensitivity
Ans: c.

56. A young man back from leisure tri has swollen knee joints & foreign body sensation in eyes. Likely cause is –
A. reiter’s syndrome
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Behcet’s disease
D. SLE
Ans: a.

57. Cause of vasodilatation in spider nevi –
A. estrogen
B. testosterone
C. Hepatotoxins
D. FSH
Ans: a.

58. A patient presented with arthritis and purpura. Laboratory examination showed monoclonal and polyclonal cryoglobulins. Histopathology showed deposits of cryoglobins around the vessels. The patient should be tested for which of the following?
A. HBV
B. HCV
C. EBV
D. parvovirus
Ans: b.

59. Hepatomegaly is the essential feature of all the following except –
A. Hepatic porphyria
B. Nieman pick disease
C. Von gierke’s disease
D. hurler syndrome
Ans: a.

60. Rapid infusion of insulin causes –
A. hyperkalemia
B. hypokalemia
C. hypernatremia
D. hyponatremia
Ans: b.

61. Digitalis toxicity enhanced by A/E –
A. renal failure
B. Hyperkalemia
C. hypercalcemia
D. hypomagnesemia
Ans: b.

62. True about hemochromatosis –
A. Is genetically heterogenous
B. Cannot be treated by phlebotomy
C. Completely penetrant
D. More common in females
Ans: a.

63. Strawberry gingivitis seen in –
A. Myelocytic infiltration
B. Phenytoin toxicity
C. Wegner granulomatosis
D. Klipel renaunay syndrome
Ans: c.

64. A child presents with recurrent episodes of lip and laryngeal edema and abdominal pain associated with stress levels of which of the following are reduced.
A. C3
B. C5a
C. C1 estease inhibitor
D. C9
Ans: c.

65. Best test for initial malabsorption –
A. D-xylose test
B. NBT-PABA Test
C. Fecal fatestimation
D. Schilling test
Ans: a.

66. All are true about temporal arthritis except –
A. Can leads to sudden bilateral blindness
B. More common in females
C. Worsen on exposure to heat
D. Mostly affects elderly
Ans: c.

67. A pt presents with acute rheumatic carditis with fever. True statement is –
A. Increase troponin T
B. Reduced myocardial contractibility
C. Signs of inflammation and necrosis
D. Valve replacement will ameliorate C.C.F.
Ans: d.

68. Cardiovascular complications of HIV infection include all of the following except –
A. pericardial effusion
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Aortic Aneurysm
Ans: d.

MICROBIOLOGY

69. A male patient presented with granulomatous penile ulcer. On Wright geimsa stain tiny organisms of 2 microns within macrophages see. What is the causative organism?
A. LGV
B. Calymmatobacterium grabulomatis
C. Neisseria
D. Staph aureus
Ans: b.

70. Diagnostic of Rabies –
A. Guarneri bodies
B. Negri bodies
C. Cowdry a body
D. Bollinger bodies
Ans: b.

71. Streptococcus all are true except –
A. streptodornase cleaves DNA
B. streptolysis O is active in reduced state
C. Streptokinase is produced from serotype A, C, K
D. pyrogenic toxin A is plasmid mediated
Ans: d.

72. Superantigens true is –
A. they bind to the cleft of the MHC
B. Needs to processed before presentation
C. they are presented by APC’s to T cells
D. directly attached to lateral aspect of TCR beta chain
Ans: d.

73. Not used in leptospirosis –
A. microscopic agglutination test
B. dark field illumination
C. macroscopic agglutination test
D. Weil felix reaction
Ans: d.

74. Lymes disease all are true except –
A. Borellia bourgdorferi replicates locally and invades locally
B. Infection progresses inspite of good humoral immunity
C. Polymorphonuclear lymphocytosis in CSF suggest meningial involvement
D. IgA intrathecally confirms meningitis
Ans: c.

75. HIV pt with malabsotion, fever, chronic diarrhea, with acid fast positive organism. What is the causative agent?
A. giardia
B. microsporidia
C. Isopora
D. E. histolytica
Ans: c.

76. Most sensitive test for Treponema –
A. VDRL
B. RPR
C. FTA-ABS
D. Kahn
Ans: c.

77. Maltess cross seen on polarizing microscopy in –
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Penicillium marneffi
C. Blastomyces
D. Candida albicans
Ans: a.

78. Irradiation can be used to sterilize A/E –
A. Bone graft
B. Suture
C. Artificial tissue graft
D. Bronchoscope
Ans: d.

79. Malabsorption caused by A/E –
A. Giardia
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Strongyloides
D. Capillaria philipensis
Ans: b.

80. Antigen antibody precipitation is maximally seen in which of the following?
A. excess of antibody
B. excess of antigen
C. equivalence of antibody and antigen
D. antigen hapten interaction
Ans: c.

ORTHOPEDICS

81. Posterior glenohumeral instability can be tested by:
A. jerk test
B. crank test
C. fulcrum test
D. sulcus test
Ans: a.

82. Meralgia paresthetica is due to involvement of –
A. medical cutaneous nerve of thigh
B. lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
C. sural nerve
D. femoral nerve
Ans: b.

83. Characteristic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia –
A. Thickened bone matrix
B. Cortical erosion
C. Ground glass appearance
D. Bone enlargement
Ans: c.

84. A 68 yr old man came with pain and swelling and swelling of right knee. Ahlback grade 2 osteoarthritis changes were found on investigation. What is the further management?
A. arthroscopic washout
B. high tibial osteotomy
C. total knee replacement
D. conservative
Ans: d.

85. A 65 yrs old man with H/O back pain since 3 months. ESR is raised. On examination marked stiffness and mild restriction of chest movements is found. On x-ray, syndesmophytes are present in vertebrae. Diagnosis is –
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Degenerative osteoarthritis of spine
C. Ankylosing hypersteosis
D. Lumbar canal stenosis
Ans: a.

86. Synovial fluid – all are true except –
A. secreted by type A cells
B. follows non Newtonian fluid kinetics
C. Contains hyaluronic acid
D. viscosity is variable
Ans: a.

87. A lady presents with right knee swelling. Aspiration was done in which CPPD crystals were obtained. Next best investigation is:
A. ANA
B. RF
C. CPK
D. TSH
Ans: d.

88. Major mineral of the bone is –
A. Calcite
B. Hydroxyapatite
C. Calcium oxide
D. Calcium carbonate
Ans: b.

89. Which of the following is a pulsatile tumor?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Osteoclastoma
Ans: d.

OPHTHALMOLOGY

90. Disease with autosomal dominant inheritance is –
A. best’s disease
B. bassen-kornzwig disease
C. gyrate atrophy
D. Laurence-Moon-Biedle syndrome
Ans: a.

91. A patient presented with unilateral proptosis which compressible and increases on bending forward. No thrill or bruit was present. MRI shows a retroorbital mass with enhancement. The likely diagnosis is –
A. AV malformations
B. Orbital encephalocoecle
C. Orbital varix
D. Neurofibromatosis
Ans: c.

92. All are common cause of childhood blindness except
A. Malnutrition
B. Glaucoma
C. Ophthalmia neonatorum
D. Congenital dacryocystitis
Ans: d.

93. Which of the following does not scavenge free radicals in the lens?
A. Vit A
B. Vit C
C. Vit E
D. Catalase
Ans: a.

94. Mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is present in –
A. Vitreous humor
B. Cornea
C. Blood vessels
D. Lens
Ans: a.

RADIOLOGY

95. A male was brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift, but basal cisterns were compressed with multiple small hemorrhages. What is the diagnosis?
A. cortical contusion
B. Cerebral laceration
C. Multiple infarcts
D. Diffuse axonal injuries
Ans: d.

96. A newborn presents with congestive heart failure, on examination has bulging anterior fontanellae with a bruit on auscultation. Transfontanellar USG shows a hypoechoic midline mass with dilated lateral ventricles. Most likely diagnosis is –
A. Medulloblastoma
B. Encephalocele
C. Vein of Galen malformation
D. Arachnoid cyst
Ans: c.

97. A 48 yr old woman with B/I progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity & mild impairment of respiratory movements. MRI shows an intradural mid-dorsal midline enhancing lesion. What is the diagnosis?
A. Intradural lipoma
B. Meningioma
C. Neuroenteric cyst
D. Dermoid cyst
Ans: b.

98. Which of the following feature of thyroid nodule on USG is not suggestive of malignancy?
A. Hyperechogenecity
B. Hypoechogenecity
C. Non-homogenous
D. Microcalcification
Ans: a.

99. Investigation of choice for a lesion of temporal bone –
A. CT
B. MRI
C. USG
D. Plain x-ray
Ans: a.

PHYSIOLOGY

100. Hyperaldosteronism is associated with all except
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypertension
D. Metabolic acidosis
Ans: d.

101. Intrinsic factor of Castle is secreted by
A. chief cells
B. parietal cells
C. mucous cells
D. beta cells
Ans: b.

102. The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is
A. raised blood pressure
B. vasodilatation due to local metabolites
C. increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels
D. increased heart rate
Ans: b.

103. Appetite stimulated by all except
A. agouti related peptide
B. melanocyte concentrating hormone
C. melanocyte stimulating hormone
D. neuropeptide Y
Ans: c.

104. True about spinocerebellar tract is:
A. equilibrium
B. Smoothens and coordinates movement
C. Learning induced by change in vestibulocular reflex
D. planning and programming
Ans: b.

105. Capacitance of sperms takes place in:
A. Seminiferous tubules
B. Epididymis
C. Vas deference
D. uterus
Ans: d.

106. Not done by insulin:
A. Glycogen synthesis
B. Glycolysis
C. Lipogenesis
D. Ketogenesis
Ans: d.

107. Somatomedin mediates:
A. Deposition of chondroitin sulfate
B. Lipolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Decreased rate of glucose uptake by cells
Ans: a.

PSM

108. Leprosy involves all except:
A. uterus
B. Ovary
C. Nerve
D. Eye
Ans: a.

109. True about global warming is:
A. CO2 is the major greenhouse gas
B. Stratosphere ozone layer is harmful
C. CFC increases stratosphere ozone layer
D. Kyoto protocol called for 20% reduction in green house effect
Ans: a.

110. Incidence can be calculated by
A. case-control study
B. Prospective study
C. Retrospective study
D. Cross-sectional study
Ans: b.

111. All are true about Aedes except:
A. Bites repeatedly
B. Eggs cannot survive for more than a week without water
C. Transmits dengue
D. It takes 7-8 days to develop the parasite and transmit disease
Ans: b.

112. All of the following statements about purification of water are true except:
A. Presence of clostridial spores indicate recent contamination of water
B. Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100 ml sample of drinking water
C. Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize chlorine
D. Coliforms may be detected by multiple tube method & indole production
Ans: a.

113. Not seen in fetal pollution
A. staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. E. coli
D. Clostridrium perfringens
Ans: a.

114. Vitamin A prophylaxis to a child is:
A. Health promotion
B. Specific Protection
C. Primordial prevention
D. Secondary prevention
Ans: b.

115. Savlon contains
A. Cetrimide + Chlorheximide
B. Cetrimide + Chlorheximide + butyl alcohol
C. Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
D. cetrimide + Cetavlon
Ans: a.

116. Not true about crude birth rate
A. It is a measure of fertility
B. It is actually a ratio not a rate
C. It is independent of age of population
D. Numerator does not include still births
Ans: b.

117. Direct standarlization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the differences in:
A. Causes of death
B. Numerators
C. Age distributions
D. Denominators
Ans: c.

118. A test has high false positive rate in a community. True is
A. high specificity
B. high sensitivity
C. high prevalence
D. low prevalence
Ans: d.

119. Weight of Indian reference man in kg:
A. 55
B. 60
C. 50
D. 45
Ans: b.

120. Chlorine demand of water is measured by
A. Horrock’s apparatus
B. Chlorimeter
C. Double pot
D. Berkfeld filter
Ans: a.

121. Which of the following diseases is not included in “Vision 2010 right to sight” immediate goals?
A. trachoma
B. epidemic conjunctivitis
C. cataract
D. Onchocerciasis
Ans: b.

122. Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true?
A. it is negative in most children in first 3 month of life
B. it is a diagnostic test
C. it is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease
D. BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive
Ans: b.

123. Disease not transmitted by Lice is:
A. relapsing fever
B. Trench fever
C. Q-fever
D. epidemic typhus
Ans: c.

124. Chikungunya is transmitted by
A. aedes
B. culex
C. mansonoides
D. anopheles
Ans: a.

125. In a study following interpretation are obtained: Satisfied, very satisfied, dissatisfied. Which type of scale is this?
A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
Ans: b.

126. Treatment of choice for sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis detected in 1st trimester of pregnancy:
A. defer till second trimester
B. start cat. I immediately
C. start cat. II immediately
D. Start cat. III immediately
Ans: b.

127. Safe disposal of mercury is:
A. Collect carefully and recycle
B. Controlled combustion
C. Treatment with chemicals
D. Deep burial
Ans: a.

128. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have some positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know:
A. Prior probability of SKE; sensitivity and specificity of each test
B. Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test
C. Incidence and prevalence of SLE
D. Relative risk of SLE in this patient
Ans: a.

129. STEPS done for
A. surveillance of risk factors of non-communicable disease
B. Surveillance of incidence of non-communicable disease
C. Surveillance of evaluation of treatment of non-communicable disease
D. Surveillance of mortality from non-communicable disease
Ans: a.

130. The best graphic representation of frequency distribution data gathered of a continuous variable is:
A. Simple bar graph
B. multiple bar
C. Line diagram
D. Histogram
Ans: d.

131. Vaccine with maximum efficacy is
A. OPV
B. Measles
C. BCG
D. TT
Ans: b.

132. True about arboviruses is:
A. Yellow fever is endemic in India
B. dengue has only one serotype
C. KFD was first identified in West Bengal
D. Chikungunya is transmitted by Aedes aegypti
Ans: d.

PHARMACOLOGY

133. Which is not used in treatment of heroin dependence?
A. disulfiram
B. buprenorphine
C. clonidine
D. lofexidine
Ans: a.

134. All of the following drug is CYPA inhibitor except:
A. erythromycin
B. itraconazole
C. ritonavir
D. saquinavir
Ans: d.

135. Most common dose limiting toxicity of chemotherapeutic agent?
A. Myelosuppression
B. G.I. toxicity
C. Neurotoxicity
D. Alopecia
Ans: a.

136. Oligospermia caused by –
A. Methotrexate
B. Hydroxychloroquine
C. Leflunomide
D. D-peniollamine
Ans: a.

137. Drug of choice for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome –
A. antihistaminics
B. Proton lump inhibitors
C. Dopamine agonists
D. Antacids
Ans: b.

138. Which one of the following drugs cause hypomagnesemia by increased excretion?
A. Frusemide therapy
B. Cisplatin
C. Digitalis
D. Aminoglycosides
Ans: a.

139. Pharmacovigilance is done for monitoring –
A. drug price
B. unethical practices
C. drug safety
D. pharmacology students
Ans: c.

140. Which of the following drugs is both antiresoptive and bone formative?
A. strontium ranelate
B. calcitonin
C. ibadronate
D. teriperatide
Ans: a.

141. Thalidomide is used in all except –
A. HIV induced peripheral neuropathy
B. HIV induced mouth ulcer
C. Bechet’s syndrome
D. Erythema nodosum leprosum
Ans: a.

142. Which is not an alkylating agent?
A. 5-FU
B. Chlorambucil
C. Melphalan
D. Cyclophosphamide
Ans: a.

143. Drug not used in pulmonary hypertension –
A. Calcium channel blocker
B. Endothelin receptor antagonist
C. Alpha blocker
D. Prostacyclin
Ans: c.

144. Opioid agonist are A/E –
A. Morphine
B. Codeine
C. Ketamine
D. Methadone
Ans: c.

PATHOLOGY

145. CD4 – is not important for which of the following –
A. antibody production
B. cytotoxicity of T cells
C. memory B cells
D. opsonisation
Ans: d.

146. Characteristic feature of acute inflammation –
A. vasoconstriction
B. vascular stasis
C. vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability
D. margination of leucocytes
Ans: c.

147. Main feature of chemotaxis is –
A. increased random movement of neutrophils
B. increased adhesiveness to intima
C. increased phagocytosis
D. unidirectional locomotion of neutrophils
Ans: d.

148. Central organ in apoptosis –
A. mitochondria
B. nucleus
C. ER
D. golgi body
Ans: a.

149. Coagulative necrosis is seen in –
A. T.B.
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Cryptococcal infection
D. gangrene
Ans: a.

150. Best investigation for diagnosing amyloidosis –
A. Rectal biopsy
B. Colonoscopy
C. CT scan
D. Upper GI endoscopy
Ans: a.

151. Caspases are associated with –
A. Organogenesis
B. Hydropic degeneration
C. Collagen hyalinization
D. ———-
Ans: a.

152. Two siblings with osteogenesis imperfect, but their parents are normal. Mechanism of inheritance is –
A. Anticipation
B. Genomic imprinting
C. Germ line mosaicism
D. New mutation
Ans: c.

153. What is the mechanism of acute rheumatic fever –
A. cross reactivity with endogenous antigen
B. innocent by slender effect
C. due to toxin secretion by streptococci
D. release of pyrogenic cytokines
Ans: a.

154. Which of the following is associated with aging –
A. reduced cross linkages in collagen
B. increased free radical injury
C. decreased somatic mutations in DNA
d. increased superoxide dismutase levels
Ans: b.

155. CD marker specific for myeloid series –
A. CD34
B. CD 45
C. CD 99
D. CD117
Ans: c.

156. Berry aneurysm – Defect lies in –
A. degeneration of internal elastic lamina
B. degeneration of media / muscle cell layer
C. Deposition of mucoid material in media
D. low grade inflammation of vessel wall
Ans: b.

PEDIATRICS

157. True about cow’s milk are all except –
A. Cow’s milk contains 80% whey protein not casein
B. Cow’s milk has less carbohydrate than mothers milk
C. Has more k+ and Na+ than infant formula feeds
D. Has more protein than breast milk
Ans: a.

158. Eisenmenger syndrome – True are A/E –
A. Pulmonary veins are not distended
B. RV & LV walls come back to normal size
C. Dilatation of central pulmonary artery
D. Peripheral pruning of pulmonary arteries
Ans: b.

159. All are signs of impending Eisenmenger except –
A. Increased flow murmur across tricuspid & pulmonary valve
B. Single S2
C. Loud P2
D. Graham steel murmur
Ans: a.

160. Most sensitive indicator of intravascular volume depletion in infant –
A. Stroke volume
B. Heart rate
C. Cardiac output
D. Blood pressure
Ans: b.

161. An alert 6 months old child is brought with vomiting & diarrhea. RR-45/min, HR-130/min, SBP-85 mm of Hg. Capillary refilling time is 4 secs. Diagnosis is –
A. early compensated hypovolemic shock
B. early decompensated hypovolemic shock
C. late compensated hypovolemic shock
D. late decompensated hock due to SVT
Ans: a.

162. Which of the following is a component of pentalogy of Fallot –
A. ASD
B. PDA
C. Coarctation of aorta
D. LVH
Ans: a.

163. Congenital toxoplasmosis – False is –
A. Diagnosed by detection of IgM in cord blood
B. IgA is more sensitive than IgM for children
C. Dye test is gold standard for IgG
D. Avidity testing must be done to differentiate between IgA and IgM
Ans: d.

164. 6 weeks old female baby found unconscious suddenly in the crib. She was previously healthy. Normal blood pressure, hyperpigmentation of genitals, blood glucose 30 mg/dl. Diagnosis is –
A. CAH due to 21-alpha hydroxylase deficiency
B. Familial glucocorticoid deficiency
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Insulinoma
Ans: b.

165. Best indicator of growth monitoring in children –
A. Weight
B. Mid-arm circumstance
C. Rate of increase in height & weight
D. Head circumstance
Ans: c.

166. A child presents with failure to thrive with frequent vomiting, diarrhea, hepatic splenomegaly & abdominal distention. CT shows adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
A. Adrenal hemorrhage
B. Wolman’s disease
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Addison’s disease
Ans: b.

SURGERY

167. Commonest organ injured in blast injury is –
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Pancreas
Ans: a.

168. In blunt trauma abdomen what should be the approach for doing laparotomy –
A. Depends on organ injured
B. Always midline incision
C. Always transverse
D. Depends upon type of injury
Ans: b.

169. A well differentiated follicular carcinoma of thyroid can be best differentiated from a follicular adenoma by: -
A. Hurthle cell change
B. Lining of tall columnar and cuboidal cells
C. Vascular invasion
D. Nuclear features
Ans: c.

170. True about brachial anomaly –
A. Cysts are more common than sinuses
B. For sinuses surgery is not always indicated
C. Cysts present with dysphagia and hoarseness of voice
D. Most commonly due to 2nd brachial remnant
Ans: d.

171. Best prognostic factor for head injury is:
A. Glassgow coma scale
B. Age
C. Mode of injury
D. CT findings
Ans: a.

172. Most common site of Morgagni hernia:
A. Right anterior
B. right posterior
C. right anterior
D. left posterior
Ans: a.

173. About congenital torticollis all are true except:
A. Always associated with breech extraction
B. Spontaneous resolution in most cases
C. 2/3rd cases have palpable neck mass at birth
D. Uncorrected cases develop plagiocephaly
Ans: a.

174. Psammoma bodies seen in A/E –
A. Follicular CA of thyroid
B. Papillary CA of thyroid
C. Serous cystadenocarcinoma of ovary
D. Meningioma
Ans: a.

175. Barrett’s esophagus shows:
A. Intestinal dysplasia
B. Intestinal metaplasia
C. Squamous cell metaplasia
D. Columnar cell metaplasia
Ans: b.

176. 50 year old male with positive family history of prostate cancer has come to you for a screening test. The most sensitive screening test to pickup prostate cancer is:
A. DRE
B. PSA
C. DRE + PSA
D. Endorectal Coil MRI with T1W and T2W images
Ans: c.

177. Orchidopexy for cryptorchidism is done at the age of:
A. 1 to 2 years
B. 5 to 6 years
C. Puberty
D. Neonatal period
Ans: a.

178. Which of the following colonic polyps has no risk for malignancy?
A. Juvenile polyps
B. Hamartomatous polyps associated with Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome
C. Juvenile polyposis syndrome
D. Famillial adenomatous polyposis syndrome
Ans: a.

179. Peutz Jeghers polyps present most commonly in –
A. rectum
B. colon
C. esophagus
D. jejunum
Ans: d.

180. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis associated with –
A. hypokalemic acidosis
B. hypokalemic alkalosis
C. hyperkalemic acidosis
D. hyperkalemic alkalosis
Ans: b.

181. Renal calculi associated with Proteus infection –
A. Uric acid
B. Triple phosphate
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Xanthine
Ans: b.

182. Sister Mary Joseph nodule is most commonly seen with –
A. Ovarian cancer
B. Stomach cancer
C. Colon cancer
D. Pancreatic cancer
Ans: b.

183. In order to expose the celiac axis, left renal artery, superior mesenteric artery and abdominal aorta in a case of trauma, which of the following is performed:
A. Left medial visceral rotation
B. right medial visceral rotation
C. cranial visceral rotation
D. caudal visceral rotation
Ans: a.

184. Which of the following is not true about FAP?
A. AR inheritance
B. Screening done by sigmoidoscopy
C. Polyps develop in late adulthood
D. Epidermal cysts & osteomas may occur
Ans: a.

185. Wilm’s tumor associated with A/E –
A. Hemihypertrophy
B. Aniridia
C. Hypertension
D. Bilateral polycystic kidney disease
Ans: d.

186. All of the following genes may be involved in development of carcinoma of colon except –
A. APC
B. Beta-Cetanin
C. K-ras
d. Mismatch repair genes
Ans: b.

187. Early post-operative complication of ileostomy in the post-operative period –
A. Obstruction
B. Necrosis
C. Diarrhea
D. Prolapse
Ans: b.

188. Smoking may be associated with all of the following cancers, except –
A. Ca larynx
B. Ca Nasopharynx
C. Ca bladder
D. Ca esophagus
Ans is None.

189. A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 days duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria –
A. USG
B. X-ray KUB
C. Urine routine
D. Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells
Ans: d.

190. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis – true are A/E –
A. Follicular destruction
B. Increase in lymphocytes
C. Oncocytic metaplasia
D. Orphan Annie eye nuclei
Ans: d.

191. A man with blunt abdominal trauma with H/O pelvic fracture has presented to ER. He has passed only few drops of blood per meatus and no urine in the past 8 hrs. His bladder is palpable per abdomen. Which of the following is correct?
A. Anuria due to hemorrhagic shock
B. Urethral injury
C. Ureteral rupture leading to extravasation of urine in retroperitoneum
D. Bladder rupture
Ans: b.

PSYCHIATRY

192. A 3 year old girl has normal development milestones except delay in speech. She has difficulty in concentration communication and relating to others and does not make friends but plays with herself. Likely diagnosis is –
A. ADHD
B. Autism
C. Specific learning disorder
D. Mental retardation
Ans: b.

193. Drug of choice in Obsessive compulsive disorder is:
A. Imipramine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Alprazolam
D. Chlorpromazine
Ans: b.

194. Naltrexone is used in opioid dependence to –
A. Prevent respiratory depression
B. Treat withdrawal symptoms
C. Prevent relapse
D. Treatment of opioid overdose
Ans: c.

195. Most common substance abuse in India is –
A. Tobacco
B. Cannabis
C. Alcohol
D. Opium
Ans: a.

196. A young lady presents with repeated episodes of excessive eating followed by purging by use of laxatives. What is the diagnosis?
A. Bulimia nervosa
B. Binge eating
C. Schizophrenia
D. Anorexia nervosa
Ans: a.

SKIN

197. Which of the following is not a primary skin disease?
A. Reiter’s syndrome
B. Bowen’s disease
C. Psoriasis
D. Lichen planus
Ans: a.

198. 25 yr old male having fever & malaise since 2 weeks, arthritis of ankle joint and tender erythematous nodules over the shin. Diagnosis is –
A. Erythema nodosum
B. Hensen’s disease
C. Weber-Christian disease
D. Urticardial vasculitis
Ans: a.

199. Chang staging is used for
A. retinoblastoma
B. medulloblastoma
C. ewing’s sarcoma
D. rhabdomysarcoma
Ans: b.

200. Which component of the eye has highest refractive index?
A. Anterior surface of the lens
B. Posterior surface of the lens
C. Centre of the lens
D. Cornea
Ans: c.

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