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AIIMS MBBS 2012 Previous Year Question Paper with Answers

Question Paper

Physics
1. If the earth stops moving around its polar axis then what will be effect on body placed at south axis?

  • (a) Remain same
  • (h) increase
  • (c) Decrease but not zero
  • (d) Decrease zero

2. In air the value of the total electric flux emitted from unit positive charge is

  • (a) to
  • (b) (coil
  • (c) (4πε0)-1
  • (d) 4πε0

3. A rod AB is l m long. The temperature of its one end A is maintained at 100’C and other end Bat 10°C, the temperature at a distance of 60 cm from point B is

  • (a) 64°C
  • (b) 36°C
  • (c) 46°C
  • (d) 72°C

4. In designing, a beam for its use to support a load. The depression at centre is proportional to (where, Y is Young’s modulus)

  • (a) Y2
  • (b) Y
  • (c) 1/Y
  • (d) 1/Y2

5. A balloon is filled at 27°C and latm pressure by 500 m’ lie. At -3°C and 0.5 atm pressure, the volume of lie will be

  • (a) 700 m3
  • (b) 900 m3
  • (c) 1000 m3
  • (d) 500 m3.

6.The particle of mass 50 kg is at rest. The work done to accelerates it by 20 m/s in 10 s is

  • (a) 103J
  • (b) 104J
  • (c) 2 x 103J
  • (d) 4 x 1034/sup>J

7. The moment of inertia of a circular loop of radius R. at a distance of R / 2 around a rotating axis parallel to horizontal diameter of loop is

  • (a) MR2
  • (b) 1/2 MR2
  • (C) 2MR2
  • (d) 3/4 MR2

8. The ratio of radius of two bubbles is 2: 1. What is the ratio excess pressure inside them?

  • (a) 1 : 2
  • (b) 1 : 4
  • (c) 2 : 1
  • (d) 4 : 1

9. In the capacitor of capacitance C, charge Q and energy W is stored. If charge is increased upto 2Q, the energy stored will be

  • (a) W/4
  • (b) W/2
  • (c) 2W
  • (d) 4W

10. The unit of thermal conductivity is

  • (a) Wm-1K-1
  • (b) JK-1
  • (c) Wmk
  • (d) JK

11. Photon and electron are given same energy (10-20 J) Wavelength associated with photon statement will he and electron are λp and λe the correct

  • (a) λp > λe
  • (b) λp < λe
  • (c) λp = λe
  • (d) λe / λp = c

12. The half-life of radioactive element is 600 yr. The fraction of sample that would remain after 3000 yr is

  • (a) 1/2
  • (b) 1/16
  • (c) 1/8
  • (d) 1/32

13. A particle moves along with x-axis. The position x of particle with respect to time r from origin given by x = b0 + b1t + b2t2. The acceleration of particle is

  • (a) b0
  • (b) b1
  • (c) b2
  • (d) 2b2

14. Root mean square speed of the molecules of ideal gas is v. If pressure is increased two times at constant temperature, then the rms speed will become

  • (a) v/2
  • (b) v
  • (c) 2v
  • (d) 4v

15. 1 mole of gas occupies a volume of 200 mL at 100 mm pressure. What is the volume occupied by two motes of gas at 400 mm pressure and at same temperature?

  • (a) SO ml.
  • (b) 100 mL
  • (c) 200 mL
  • (d) 400 mL

16. A charged particle travels along a straight line with a speed v in a region where both electric field E and magnetic field B are present. it follows that

  • (a) |E| = v |B| and the two fields are parallel
  • (b) |E| = v |B| and the two fields are perpendicular
  • (c) |B| = v |E| and the two fields are parallel
  • (d) |B| = v |E| and the two fields are perpendicular

17. What will be the wave velocity, if the radar gives 54 waves/min and wavelength of the given wave is 10 m?

  • (a) 4 m/s
  • (b) 6 m/s
  • (c) 9 m/s
  • (d) S m/s

18. A transformer of 100% efficiency has 200 turns in the primary coil and 40000 rums in secondary coil. It is connected to a 220 V main supply and secondary feeds to a 100 kfl resistance. The potential difference per turn is

  • (a) 1.1 V
  • (b) 25 V
  • (c) 18 V
  • (d) 11 V

19. A thin convex lens of refractive index 1.5 has 20 cm focal length in air. If the lens is completely immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6, us focal length will be

  • (a) – 160 cm,
  • (b) – 100 cm
  • (c) + 10 cm
  • (d) + 100 cm

20. SI unit of permittivity is

  • (a) C2m2N2
  • (b) C2m-2N-1
  • (c) C2m2N-1
  • (d) C-1m2N-2

21. A spherical drop of capacitance 1 )41: is broken into eight drops of equal radius. Then, the capacitance of each small drop is

  • (a) 1/2 μF
  • (b) 1/4 μF
  • (c) 1/8 μF
  • (d) 8 μF

22. A simple harmonic oscillator consists of a panicle of mass in and an ideal spring with spring constant k. The particle oscillates with a time period T. The spring is cut into two equal parts. If one part oscillates with the same particle, the time period will be

  • (a) 2T
  • (b) √2T
  • (c) T / √2
  • (d) T/2

23. The coefficient of viscosity for hot air is

  • (a) greater than the coefficient of viscosity for cold air
  • (b) smaller than the coefficient of viscosity for cold air
  • (c) same as the coefficient of viscosity for cold air
  • (d) increase ur decrease depending on the external pressure

24. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total (kinetic + potential) energy E0. Its potential energy is

  • (a) -E0
  • (b) 1.5 E0
  • (c) 2E0
  • (d) E0

25. A thin hollow sphere of mass m is completely filled with a liquid of mass rn. When the sphere rolls with a velocity v, kinetic energy of the system is (neglect friction)

  • (a) 1/2 mv2
  • (b) mv2
  • (c) 4/3 mv2
  • (d) 4/5 mv2

26. A non-conducting body floats in a liquid at 20°C with 2/3 of its volume immersed in the liquid. When liquid temperature is increased
to 100°C, 3 of body’s volume is immersed in the liquid. Then the coefficient of real expansion of the liquid is (neglecting the expansion of container of the liquid)

  • (a) 15.6 x 10-4°C-1
  • (b) 156 x 10-4°C-1
  • (c) 1.56 x 10-4°C-1
  • (d) 0.156 x 10-4°C-1

27. Two slabs A and B of different materials but of the same thickness are joined end to end to form a composite slab. The thermal conductivities of A and B are K1 and K2 respectively. A steady temperature difference of 12°C is maintained across the composite slab. If K1 = K2 / 2 the temperature difference across slabs A is

  • (a) 4°C
  • (b) 6°C
  • (c) 8°C
  • (d) 10°C

28. In short wave communication waves of which of following frequencies will be reflected back by the ionospheric layer having electron density 1011 per m3?

  • (a) 2 MHz
  • (b) 10 MHz
  • (c) 12 MHz
  • (d) 18 MHz

29. A body of mass 4 kg moving with velocity 12 m/s collides with another body of mass 6 kg at rest. If two bodies stick together after collision, then the loss of kinetic energy of system is

  • (a) zero
  • (b) 288 J
  • (c) 172.8 J
  • (d) 144 J

30. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in 10 s. Then the coefficient of
friction is

  • (a) 0.01
  • (b) 0.02
  • (c) 0.03
  • (d) 0.02

31. A body of mass 0.25 kg is projected with muzzle velocity 100 m/s from a tank of mass 100 kg. What is the recoil velocity of the tank?

  • (a) 5 nvs
  • (b) 25 in/s
  • (c) 0.5 m/s
  • (d) 0.25 m/s

32. A rocket with a lift-off mass 3.5 x 104 kg is blast upward with an initial acceleration of 10 m/s2. Then, the initial thrust of the blast is

  • (a) 1.75 x 105 N
  • (b) 3.5 x 105 N
  • (c) 7.0 x 105 N
  • (d) 14.0 x 105 N

33. A step down transformer is used on a 1000 V line to deliver 20 A at 120 Vat the secondary coil. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn from the line is

  • (a) 3 A
  • (b) 30 A
  • (c) 0.3 A
  • (d) 2.4 A

34. What kV potential is to be applied on X-ray tube so that minimum wavelength of emitted X-rays may be 1 A (h = 6.6 x 10-34J-5)

  • (a) 12.42 kV
  • (b) 12.84 kV
  • (c) 11.98 kV
  • (d) 10.78 kV

35. Hydrogen atom excites energy level from fundamental state to n = 3. Number of spectrum lines according to Bohr is

  • (a) 4
  • (b) 3
  • (c) 1
  • (d) 2

36. A black body at a temperature of 2600 K has the wavelength corresponding to maximum emission 1200 A. Assuming the moon to be perfectly black body the temperature of the moon, if the wavelength corresponding to maximum emission is 5000 A is

  • (a) 7800 K
  • (b) 6240 K
  • (c) 5240 K
  • (d) 3640 K

37. The heat required to increase the temperature of 4 moles of a monoatomic ideal gas from 273 K to 473 K at constant volume is

  • (a) 200 R
  • (b) 400 R
  • (c) 800 R
  • (d) 1200 R

38. A solid sphere rolls without slipping on the roof. The ratio of its rotational kinetic energy and its total kinetic energy is

  • (a) 2/S
  • (b) 4/5
  • (c) 2/7
  • (d) 3/7

39. 6Ω and 12Ω resistors are connected in parallel. This combination is connected in series with a 10 V battery and 6Ω resistor. What is the potential difference between the terminals of the 12Ω resistor?

  • (a) 4 V
  • (b) 16 V
  • (c) 2
  • (d) 8 v

40. Charge passing through a conductor of cross-section area A = 0.3 m2 is given by q sa 3 t2 + St + 2 in coulomb, where t is in second. What is the value of drift velocity at t= 2 s? (Given, n= 2 x 1025 / m3)

  • (a) 0.77 x 10-5m / s
  • (b) 1.77 x 10-5m/ s
  • (c) 2.08 x 105m/s
  • (d) 0.57 x 105m/s

Directions (Q. Nos. 41.60) These questions consist of two statements each printed as assertion and reason. Whole answering these questions you are required to choose any one of of following responses.

  • (a) if both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
  • (h) If the Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assert ion
  • (c) If Assertion is true but, Reason is false
  • (d) If Assertion is false but, Reason Is true

41. Assertion When a body is dropped or thrown horizontally from the same height, it would reach the ground at the same time.
Reason Horizontal velocity has no effect on the vertical direction.

42. Assertion Two similar trains are moving along the equatorial line with the same speed but in opposite direction. They will exert equal pressure on the rails.
Reason In uniform circular motion the magnitude of acceleration remains constant but the direction continuously changes.

43. Assertion A table cloth can he pulled from a table without disloading the dishes.
Reason To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

44. Assertion Soft steel can be made red hot by continued hammering on it, but hard steel cannot.
Reason Energy transfer in case of soft is large as in hard steel.

45. Assertion The centre of mass of an electron and proton, when released moves faster towards proton.
Reason Proton is heavier than electron.

46. Assertion A planet moves faster, when it is closer to the sun in its orbit and vice versa.
Reason Orbital velocity in orbit of planet is constant.

47. Assertion A large force is required to drawn apart normally two glass plates enclosing a thin water film.
Reason Water works as glue and sticks two glass plates.

48. Assertion The water rises higher in a capillary tube of small diameter than in the capillary tube of large diameter.
Reason Height through which liquid rise in capillary tube inversely proportional to the capillary tube.

49. Assertion If the bob of a simple pendulum is kept in a horizontal electric field, its period of oscillation will remain same.
Reason If bob is charged and kept in horizontal electric field, then the time period will be decreased.

50. Assertion A thermoelectric refrigerator is based on the Peltier effect.
Reason A thermocouple may be used as a radiation detector.

51. Assertion The pattern and position of fringes always remain same even after the introduction of transparent medium in a path of one of the slit.
Reason The central fringe is bright or dark depends upon the initial phase difference between the two coherence sources.

52. Assertion Balmer senes lies in the visible region of electromagnetic spectrum.
Reason 1/λ = R (1 / 22 – 1 / n2)
where, n = 3.4, 5…

53. Assertion Corpuscular theory fails in explaining the velocities of light in air and water.
Reason According to corpuscular theory, light should travel faster in denser media than in rarer media.

54. Assertion Susceptibility is defined as the ratio of intensity of magnetisation I to magnetic intensity H.
Reason Greater the value of susceptibility smaller the value of intensity of magnetisation I.

55. Assertion It is nor possible to have interference between the waves produced by two violins.
Reason For interference of two waves the phase difference between the waves must remain constant.

56. Assertion A metallic shield in the form of a hollow shell may be build to block an electric field.
Reason In a hollow spherical shield. the electric field inside it is zero at every point.

57. Assertion The molecules of a monoatomic gas has three degrees of freedom.
Reason The molecules of a diatomic gas has five degrees of freedom.

58. Assertion To observe diffraction of light the size of obstacle/aperture should be of the order of 10-7 m.
Reason 10-7m is the order of wavelength of visible light.

59. Assertion The resolving power of a telescope is more if the diameter of the objective lens is more.
Reason Objective lens of large diameter collects more light.

60. Assertion A beam of charged particles is employed in the treatment of cancer.

Reason Charged panicles on passing through a material medium loss their energy by causing ionisation of the atoms along their path.

Chemistry

1. Which one of the following enzymes is present in animals like cow, buffaloes etc., to digest compounds like paper, cloth etc?

  • (a) Ureaze
  • (b) Cellulase
  • (c) Silicones
  • (d) Sucrose

2. Which one of the following is employed as antihistamine?

  • (a) Omeprazole
  • (b) Chloramphenicol
  • (c) Dipher yl hydramine
  • (d) Northindrone

3. Dunston’s test is used for identification of

  • (a) glycerol
  • (b) acetone
  • (c) glycol
  • (d) ethanol

4. Which one of the following structures represents the neoprene polymer?
AIIMS MBBS 2012 Question Paper with Answers

5. Etherates are

  • (a) ethers
  • (b) solution in ether
  • (c) complexes of ethers with Lewis acid
  • (d) complexes of ethers with Lewis base

6. IC electricity deposits

  • (a) 10.8 g of Ag
  • (b) electrochemical equivalent of Ag
  • (c) half of electrochemical equivalent of Ag
  • (d) 96500 g of Ag

7. The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the Cue2+/Cu couples is [Given, E°Cu2+/Cu = 0.34V; Ksp Cu(OH)2 = 1 x 10-19

  • (a) 0.34 V
  • (b) – 0.34 V
  • (c) 0.22 V
  • (d) – 0.22 V

8. Freon used as refrigerant is

  • (a) CF2=CF2
  • (b) CH2F2
  • (c) CCl2F2
  • (d) CF4

9. Of the following, the oxime of which shows geometrical isomerism is

  • (a) acetone
  • (b) diethyel ketone
  • (c) formaldehyde
  • (d) benzaldehyde

10. Which has the highest nucleophilicity?

  • (a) F
  • (b) OH
  • (c) —CH3
  • (d) —NH2

11. What is the correct relationship between the pHs of isoinolar solutions of sodium oxide (PH1), sodium sulphide (pH2), sodium selenide (pH3) and sodium telluride (pH4)?

  • (a) pH1 > pH2 = pH3 > PH4
  • (b) pH1 < pH2 < pH3 < PH4
  • (c) pH1 < pH2 < pH3 ≈ PH4
  • (d) pH1 > pH2 > pH3 > PH4

12. The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q are 80 and 60 tort respectively. The total vapour pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 moles of P and 2 moles of Q would be

  • (a) 140 WIT
  • (b) 20 torr
  • (c) 68 UM
  • (d) 72 WIT

13. Which one of the following compounds is most acidic?

AIIMS MBBS 2012 Question Paper with Answers

14. A reaction occurs spontaneously if

  • (a) TΔS < ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are + ve
  • (b) TΔS > ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are + ve
  • (c) TΔS = ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are + ve
  • (d) TΔS > ΔH and ΔH is + ve and ΔS is – ye

15. The aqueous solution containing which one of the following ions will be colourless? (Atomic number of Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Ti = 22. Mn = 25)

  • (a) Sc3+
  • (b) Fe2+
  • (c) Ti3+
  • (d) Mn2+

16. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy?

  • (a) Vanadium t Z = 23)
  • (b) Chromium (Z = 24)
  • (c) Iron (Z = 26)

17. Which one of the following alkenes will react faster with 1-12 under catalytic hydrogenation conditions?

AIIMS MBBS 2012 Question Paper with Answers

18. For a first order reaction A → B, the reaction rate at reactant concentration of 0.01 M is found to be 2.0 x 10-5 mol L-1s-1. The half-life period of the reaction is

  • (a) 220 s
  • (b) 30 s
  • (c) 300 s
  • (d) 347 s

19. Which one of the following is the electron deficiens molecule?

  • (a) B2H6
  • (b) C2H6
  • (c) PH3
  • (d) SiH4

20. Which one of the following would have a permanent dipole moment?

  • (a) BF3
  • (b) SiF4
  • (c) SF4
  • (d) XeF4

21. Which one of the following undergoes nucleophilic substitution exclusively by SN I mechanism?

  • (a) Benzyl chloride
  • (b) Ethyl chloride
  • (c) Chlorobenzene
  • (d) Isopropyl chloride

22. The rate of reaction between two reactants A and B decreases by a factor of 4, if the concentration of reactant B is doubled. The order of this reaction with respect to reactant B is

  • (a) -1
  • (b) -2
  • (c) 1
  • (d) 2

23. In a face centred cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells?

  • (a) 8
  • (b) 4
  • (c) 2
  • (d) 6

24. A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol-l) boils at 100.18°C at the atmospheric pressure

If Kf and Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.52 K kg mol-1 respectively, the above solution will freeze at

  • (a) -6.54°C
  • (b) 654°C
  • (c) 0.654°C
  • (d) -0.654T

25. Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex as well as diamagnetic in behaviour? (Atomic number of Zn = 30, Cr = 24,
CO = 27, Ni = 28)

  • (a) [Zn(NH3)6]2+
  • (b) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
  • (c) [Co(NH3)6]3+
  • (d) [Ni(NH3)6]2+

26. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives

  • (a) aniline
  • (b) nitrosobenzene
  • (c) N-phenylhydroxylamine
  • (d) p-hydroxyaniltne

27. Which one of the following oxides is expected to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour?

  • (a) CO2
  • (b) S02
  • (c) CI02
  • (d) Si02

28. The correct order of acid strength is

  • (a) HCIO < HClO2 < HC1O3 < HClO4
  • (b) HClO4 < HCIO < HClO2 < HC1O3
  • (c) HClO2 < HC1O3 < HClO4 < HCIO
  • (d) HClO4 < HC1O3 < HClO2 < HCIO

29. In the equation.

AIIMS MBBS 2012 Question Paper with Answers

Identify the metal M.

  • (a) Copper
  • (b) Iron
  • (c) Gold
  • (d) Zinc

30. The decomposition of a certain mass of CaCO3 gave 11.2 dm3 of CO2 gas at STP. The mass of KOH required to completely neutralise the gas is

  • (a) 56 g
  • (b) 28 g
  • (c) 42 g
  • (d) 20 g

31. Calculate the wavelength of light required to break the bond between two chlorine atoms in a chlorine molecule. The CI—CI bond energy is 243 kJ mol-1 (h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js; c = 3 x 108 ms-1, Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 10-23 mole-1)

  • (a) 4.91 x 10-7m
  • (b) 4.11 x 10-6m
  • (c) 8.81 x 10-31m
  • (d) 6.26 x 10-21m

32. The pressure and temperature of 4 dm3 of carbon dioxide gas are doubled. Then volume of carbon dioxide would be

  • (a) 2 dm3
  • (b) 3 dm3
  • (C) 4 dm3
  • (d) 8 dm3

33. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H+ ion concentration in the mixture?

  • (a) 1.11 x 10-4 M
  • (b) 3.7 x 10-4 M
  • (c) 3.7 x 10-4 M
  • (d) 1.11 x 10-3 M

34. Purple of Cassius is a/an

  • (a) colloidal sol of gold
  • (b) colloidal sol of silver
  • (C) colloidal col of platinum
  • (d) oxyacid of gold

35. Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound belongs to which of the following categories?

  • (a) A coenzyme
  • (b) A hormone
  • (c) An enzyme
  • (d) An antibiotic

36. Which base is present in RNA but nor in DNA?

  • (a) Uracil
  • (b) Cytosine
  • (c) Guanine
  • (d) Thymine

37. Which one of the following methods is neither meant (or the synthesis nor for the separation of amines?

  • (a) Cunius reaction
  • (b) Wurtz reaction
  • (c) Hofmann method
  • (d) Hinsberg method

38. The reaction of chloroform with alcoholic KOH and p-toluicline form

AIIMS MBBS 2012 Question Paper with Answers

39. Pyruvic acid is obtained by

  • (a) oxidation of acetaldehyde cyanohydrin
  • (b) oxidation of formaldehyde cyanohydrin
  • (c) oxidation of acetone cyanohydrin
  • (d) None of the above

40. Rate of the reaction,

AIIMS MBBS 2012 Question Paper with Answers
is fastest when Z is

  • (a) CI
  • (b) NH2
  • (c) 0C2H5
  • (d) OCOCH3

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-60) These questions consist of two statements each printed as assertion and reason. Whole answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following responses.

  • (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
  • (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is nor the correct explanation of Assertion
  • (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
  • (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false

41. Assertion Mercury vapour is shining silvery appearance.
Reason Mercury is a metal with shining silvery appearance.

42. Assertion F2 has high reactivity.
Reason F — F bond has low bond dissociation enthalpy.

43. Assertion BF3 molecule is planar but NF3 is pyramidal.
Reason N atom is smaller than B.

44. Assertion The free gaseous Cr atom has six unpaired electrons.
Reason Half-filled s-orbital has greater stability.

45. Assertion Meniscus of a liquid disappears at critical temperature.
Reason Density of a liquid and its gaseous phase become equal at the critical temperature.

46. Assertion Molar entropy of vaporisation of water is different from ethanol.
Reason Water is more polar than ethanol.

47.

AIIMS MBBS 2012 Question Paper with Answers

48. Assertion Small quantity of soap is used to prepare a stable emulsion.
Reason Soap lowers the interfacial tension between oil and water.

49. Assertion Both o-hydroxy benzaldehyde and p-hydroxy benzaldehyde have same molecular weight and show H-bonding.
Reason Melting point of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde is more.

50. Assertion Precipitation of soap is made by the addition of salt (NaCI).
Reason Presence of common ion suppresses the dissociation of weak acid.

51. Assertion van-Arkel method is used prepare samples of some metals.
Reason It involves reaction of CO with metals to form volatile carbonyls which decompose on heating to give pure metal.

52. Assertion EDTA is a hexadentate ligand.
Reason Denucity of a ligand is given by number of lone pairs donated to central atom by a ligand.

53. Assertion Sodium carbonate extract of a salt containing sulphide ions gives a violet colour with appropriate reagent.
Reason The reagent sodium nitroprusside gives violet colour due to the formation of sodium thionitroprusside.

54. Assertion H2O2 under goes disproportionation on heating.
Reason It gives H2O and O2 on heating.

55. Assertion 1E1 of nitrogen is lower than ICE of oxygen.
Reason Across a period affective nuclear charges decreases.

56. Assertion The term anomers of glucose refers to isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C – I).
Reason Anomers of glucose are cyclic diastereomers differ in configuration at C -1 existing in two forms α-and β-respectively.

57. Assertion The presence of nitro group facilitates nucleophilic substitution reactions in aryl halides.
Reason The intermediate carbanion is stabilised due to the presence of nitro group.

58. Assertion Alkyl benzene is not prepared by Friedel-Craft’s alkylation of benzene.
Reason Alkyl halides are less reactive than acyl halides.

59. Assertion Benzyl bromide when kept in acetone water produces benzyl alcohol.
Reason The reaction follows SN2 mechanism.
60. Assertion Isobutanal does not give iodoform test.
Reason It does not have a α hydrogen.

Biology

1. Energy flow in an ecosystem is
  • (a) unidirectional
  • (b) bidirectional
  • (c) multi-directional
  • (d) All of these

2. Who proposed a five-kingdom classification and named kingdoms as Monera, Prorista. Fungi, Plantae and Animalia?

  • (a) Herbert Copeland
  • (b) RH Whittaker
  • (c) Car! Woese
  • (d) Carolus Linnaeus

3. Which of the following organisms completely lack cell wall, they are the smallest living cells known and can survive without oxygen?

  • (a) Mycoplasma
  • (b) Euglenoids
  • (c) Slime moulds
  • (d) All of these

4. What is the correct order of the stages of cellular respiration?

  • (a) Krebs’ cycle electron- transport- chain rilycolysis
  • (b) Election transport chain – Krebs’ cycle – glycolysis
  • (c) Glycolysis – Krebs’ cycle – electron transport chain
  • (d) Glycolysis – electron transport chain – Krebs’ cycle

5. A mixture containing DNA fragments, a, b, c and d, with molecular weights of a b c. a > b and d > c, was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The positions of these fragments from cathode to anode sides of the gel would be

  • (a) b, a, c, d
  • (b) a, b, c, d
  • (c) c, b, a, d
  • (d) b, a. d, c

6. Which of the following DNA sequences qualifies to he designated as a palindrome?

  • (a) 5′- GACCAG – 3′ in one strand
  • (b) 3′- GACCAG – 5′ in one strand
  • (c) 5′- GACGAG – 3’3′- CIGGIC – 5′
  • (d) 5′- AGCGCT’- 3’3′- TCGCGA – 5′

7. IUCN stands for

  • (a) Indian Union for Conservation of Nature
  • (b) International Union for Conservation of Nuture
  • (c) Indian Union for Chemical Nomenclature
  • (d) International Union for Conservation of Nutrients

8. Tendrils in plants are an example of

  • (a) convergent evolution
  • (b) radiation
  • (c) divergent evolution
  • (d) co-evolution

9. Haemoglobin is

  • (a) an oxygen carrier in human blood
  • (b) a protein used as food supplement
  • (c) an oxygen scavenger in root nodules
  • (d) a plant protein with high lysine content

10. Stomatal opening is affected by

  • (a) nitrogen concentration, carbon dioxide concentration and light
  • (b) carbon dioxide concentration, temperature and light
  • (c) nitrogen concentration, light and temperature
  • (d) carbon dioxide concentration, nitrogen concentration and temperature

11. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to

  • (a) step-wise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals
  • (b) a group of senior taxonomists, who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals
  • (c) a list of botanists or zoologists, who have worked on taxonomy of a species or group
  • (d) classification of a species based on fossil record

12. Which of the following induces parturition?

  • (a) Vasopressin
  • (b) Oxytocin
  • (c) GH
  • (d) TSH

13. Excess carbohydrates and proteins are stored in the body as

  • (a) amino acids
  • (b) fats
  • (c) starch
  • (d) monosaccharides

14. Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are

  • (a) bacteria-related diseases
  • (b) congenital disorders
  • (c) pollutant-induced disorders
  • (d) virus-related diseases

15. Which one of the following pairs in not correctly matched?

  • (a) Vitamin-B12 — Pernicious anaemia
  • (b) Vitamin-B6 — Loss of appetite
  • (c) Vitamin-B1 — Beri-beri
  • (d) Vitamin-B2 — Pellagra

16. The exchange of segments of non-sister chromatids between chromosomes of a homologous pair termed as

  • (a) transformation
  • (b) translocation
  • (c) crossing over
  • (d) chromosomal aberration

17. Okazaki is known for his contribution to the understanding of

  • (a) transcription
  • (b) translation
  • (c) DNA replication
  • (d) mutation

18. The beginning of understanding genetic transformation in bacteria was made by

  • (a) Frederick Griffith
  • (b) Hershey and Chase
  • (c) Watson and Crick
  • (d) TH Morgan

19. The source of taq polymerase used in PCR is a

  • (a) thermophilic fungus
  • (b) mesophilic fungus
  • (c) thermophilc bacterium
  • (d) halophilic bacterium

20. A pea plant parent having violet-coloured flowers with unknown genotype was crossed with a plant having white-coloured flowers. In the progeny, 5O% of the flowers were violet and 50% were white. The genotypic constitution of the parent having violet-coloured flowers was

  • (a) homozygous
  • (b) merozygous
  • (c) heterozygous
  • (d) hemizygous

21. If the total amount of adenine and thyrnine in a double-stranded DNA is 45%, the amount of guznine in this DNA will be

  • (a) 22.5%
  • (b) 27 5%
  • (c) 45%
  • (d) 55%

22. Typhoid fever is caused by a species of

  • (a) Streptococcus
  • (b) Staphylococcus
  • (C) Salmonella
  • (d) Mycobacterium

23. HIV is a member of a group of viruses called

  • (a) bacteriophages
  • (b) geminiviruses
  • (c) lysogenic viruses
  • (d) retroviruses

24. The number of linkage group(s) present in Escherichia Coli is

  • (a) one
  • (b) two
  • (c) four
  • (d) seven

25. Natural cytokinins are sythesized in tissue that are

  • (a) senescent
  • (b) dividing rapidly
  • (c) storing food material
  • (d) differennating

26. Resemblance of one organism to another for protection and hiding is

  • (a) mimicry
  • (b) predation
  • (c) adaptation
  • (d) camouflage

27. Spirochaetes is are

  • (a) a class or insects
  • (b) a class of viruses
  • (c) bacteria
  • (d) fungi

28. The metachromatic granules are

  • (al present in plants cell at metaphase stage
  • (b) inclusion bodies in bacteria
  • (c) produced in insects during metamorphosis
  • (d) chromatophores in animals skin

29. Clamp connection is found In

  • (a) Basidiomycetes
  • (b) Ascomycetes
  • (c) Saccharomycetes
  • (d) Haplomycetes

30. AUG codes for

  • (a) valine
  • (b) hiscidine
  • (c) phenylalanine
  • (d) methionine

31. Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane was given by

  • (a) Robertson
  • (b) Robert Hooke
  • (c) Singer and Nicholson
  • (d) Gorter and Grendel

32. Cell respiration is carried out by

  • (a) ribosome
  • (b) mitochondria
  • (c) chloroplast
  • (d) Golgi bodies

33. In the lacoperon model, lactose molecules function as

  • (a) inducers, which bind with the operator gene
  • (b) repressors, which bind with the operator gene
  • (c) inducers, which bind with the repressor protein
  • (d) corepressors, which bind with repressors protein

34. A recessive mutant is one which is

  • (a) not expressed
  • (b) rarely expressed
  • (c) expressed only in homozygous and hemizygous state
  • (d) expressed only in heterozygous state

35. Humoral immunity system is mediated by

  • (a) R-cells
  • (b) T-cells
  • (c) NK-cell
  • (d) plasma cells

36. It two pea plants having red (dominant) coloured flowers with unknown genotypes are crossed, 75% of the flowers are red and 25% are white. The genotypic constitution of the parents having red coloured flowers will be

  • (a) both homozygous
  • (b) one homozygous and other heterozygous
  • (c) both heterozygous
  • (d) both hemizygous

37. If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a double•stranded DNA is 60%, the amount of guanine in this DNA will be

  • (a) 15%
  • (b) 20%
  • (c) 30%
  • (d) 40%

38. The protein products of the following Bt toxin genes cry I Ac and cry II Ab are
responsible for controlling

  • (a) bollworm
  • (b) roundworm
  • (c) moth
  • (d) fruit fly

39. In a flowering plant, the pollen tube first arrives in

  • (a) egg
  • (b) an antipodal cell
  • (c) a synergid
  • (d) central cell

Directions (Q. Nos. 40-60) These questions consist of two statements each printed as assertion and reason. Whole answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.

  • (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is correct explanation of Assertion
  • (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
  • (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
  • (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false

40. Assertion Only a single functional female gamete is formed from each primary oocyte cell.
Reason Meiosis in each primary as oocyte gives rise to only one cell, which function ovum.

41. Assertion Cytochrome oxidase enzyme contain copper,
Reason Cyanide combines with the copper of cytochrome oxidase and prevents O2 combining with it.

42. Assertion Recognition site should be preferably single and responsive to commonly used restriction enzyme.
Reason In pBR322 alien DNA is ligated generally in the area of Barn HI site of tetracyline resistance gene.

43. Assertion Generally, a woman do nor conceive during lactation period.
Reason The hormone prolacrin initiates and maintain lactation in a woman.

44. Assertion Allelopathy is a form of ammensalism that occurs in plants.
Reason Association of rooting plants with fungal hyphae is an important example ammensalism.

45. Assertion Bats and whales are classified as mammals.
Reason Bats and whales have four chambered heart.

46. Assertion Histamine is related with allergic and inflammatory reactions.
Reason Histamine is a vasodilator.

47. Assertion For a recipient to receive blood from a donar, the recipients plasma must not have an antibody, cause the donor’s cells to agglutinate.

Reason The possibility of blood clumping does not depend on anti A and anti B antibody and blood type.

48. Assertion Monocot stem has collateral open vascular bundle.
Reason Open vascular bundle is without vascular cambium.

49. Assertion Presence of flavin nucleotide is essential for the activity of some enzymes.
Reason Flavin nucleotide is an activator of these enzyme.

50. Assertion Due to excessive use of fertilizers, the available water to the plants becomes hypotonic in relation to cell sap.
Reason The water molecules as a result diffuse out of the cells due to endosmosis.

51. Assertion The nuclear envelope acts as an interface between the genetic component of the cell and the cytoplasm.
Reason It thus protects DNA against the mutagenic effect of cytoplasmic enzyme.

52. Assertion Waxy and earth coating on plant parts reduce the transpiration.
Reason These adaptation are found in xerophytes.

53. Assertion Light is very important factor in transpiration.
Reason It induces stomata! opening and darkness closing. Therefore, transpiration increases in light and decreases in dark.

54. Assertion Mitochondria help in photosynthesis.
Reason Mitochondria have enzymes for dark reaction.

55. Assertion Aflatoions are produced by Aspergillus flowers.
Reason These toxins are useful to mankind.

56. Assertion Histones are basic protein of major importance in packaging of eukaryotic DNA. DNA and histone comprise chromatine forming bulk of eukaryotic chromosome.
Reason Histones are five major types H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4.

57. Assertion Photosynthetically C4-plants are less efficient than C3-plants.
Reason The operation of C4-pathway requires the involvement of only bundle sheath cells.

58. Assertion λ SD and marijuan are clinically used as analgesics.
Reason Both these drugs suppress brain function.

59. Assertion Organ transplantation patients are given Immo nosppressive drugs.
Reason Transplanted tissue has antigens, which stimulate the specific immune response of the recepient.

60. Assertion Person suffering from haemophilia fail to produce blood doting factor VIII.
Reason Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are found in very low concentration.

General Knowledge

1. At high altitudes the boiling point nr water lowers because
  • (a) atmospheric pressure is iow
  • (b) atmospheric pressure is high
  • (c) temperature is low
  • (d) None of the above

2. The wildlife week is celebrated from

  • (a) 2-8 October
  • (b) 1-7June
  • (c) 16-22 April
  • (d) 14-20 January

3. Saraswati Samman is given annually for outstanding contribution to

  • (a) literature
  • (b) education
  • (c) fine arts
  • (d) classical music

4. The headquarters of UNESCO is at

  • (a) Rome
  • (b) Geneva
  • (c) Paris
  • (d) New York

5. ‘CDMA’-technology used in mobile phones stand for

  • (a) Computer Developed Management Application
  • (b) Code Division Multiple Application
  • (c) Code Division Multiple Access
  • (d) Code Division Mobile Application

6. Mixed Economy means

  • (a) where agriculture and industry are given equal importance
  • (b) where public sector exists along with the private sector innational economy
  • (c) where globalization is transferred with heavy dose of swadeshi in National Economy
  • (d) where the centre and the states are equal partners in economic planning and development

7. Who coined the term Hindu rate of Growth’ for Indian Economy?

  • (a) AK Sen
  • (b) Kirk S Parikh
  • (c) Raj Krishna
  • (d) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

8. By virtue of which Act, dyarchy was introduced in India?

  • (a) Indian Council Act, 1909
  • (b) Government of Indian Act, 1919
  • (c) Government of India Act, 1955
  • (d) Indian Independece Act, 1947

9.The principle that disguishes Jainsim from Buddhism is the

  • (a) practice of the eight-fold path
  • (b) rejection of the infallibility of the Vedas
  • (c) attribution of a i.oul to all beings and things
  • (d) belief in rebirth

10. Which one of the following fairs is not correctly matched?

  • (a) Kautilya-Arthashastra
  • (h) Hala-Gathasaptasati
  • (c) Banbhatta-Buddhachaiita
  • (d) Kalidaia-Abhijnanasakuntalam

11. Tides are comhlied and they vary from place to place because of

  • (a) the movemeni of moon in relation to earth
  • (b) unevem distribution of water over the globe
  • (c) irregularities in the configuration of oceans
  • (d) All of the above

12. Who is the known as father of Biology?

  • (al Aristotle
  • (b) Darwin
  • (c) Lamark
  • (d) Lamark and Treviranus

13. Study of fruit is called

  • (al Sperniology
  • (b) Anthology
  • (c) Pedology
  • (d) Pomology

14. The computer’s processor consists of the following parts

  • (a) CPU and Main Memory
  • (b) Hard disk and Floppy Drive
  • (c) Main memory and Storage
  • (d) Operating System and Applications

15. A pure substance can only be

  • (a) compound
  • (b) an element
  • (c) an element or compound
  • (d) a heterogeneous mixture

16. First National park developed in India is

  • (a) Gir
  • (b) Kaziranga
  • (c) Jim Corbett
  • (d) None of these

17. Who has been designated as the ‘Man of the Decade’ by Time Magazine?

  • (a) Nelson Mandela
  • (b) Ronold Reagan
  • (c) Dalai Lama
  • (d) None of these

18. The First-Earth summit was held at

  • (a) Buenos Aires
  • (b) Rio de Jeiteiro
  • (c) Dar-es-salam
  • (d) None of these

19. Who is the author of the book ‘Naked Triangle’?

  • (a) RK Narayan
  • (b) Khushwant Singh
  • (c) Balwant Gargi
  • (d) Amrita Pritam

20. With which game does Davis cup is associated?

  • (a) Hockey
  • (b) Table Tennis
  • (c) Lawn Tennis
  • (d) Polo

Answer Key

Physics

Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans
1 a 13 d 25 c 37 d 49 b
2 b 14 b 26 c 38 c 50 d
3 a 15 b 27 c 39 a 51 d
4 c 16 c 28 a 40 b 52 a
5 b 17 c 29 c 41 a 53 a
6 b 18 a 30 d 42 d 54 c
7 d 19 a 31 d 43 c 55 a
8 a 20 b 32 c 44 a 56 a
9 d 21 a 33 a 45 d 57 b
10 a 22 c 34 a 46 c 58 a
11 a 23 a 35 b 47 c 59 a
12 d 24 c 36 b 48 a 60 b

Chemistry

Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans
1 b 13 b 25 c 37 b 49 b
2 c 14 b 26 c 38 d 50 b
3 a 15 a 27 c 39 a 51 c
4 b 16 d 28 a 40 a 52 a
5 c 17 a 29 c 41 d 53 a
6 b 18 d 30 b 42 a 54 a
7 d 19 a 31 a 43 b 55 d
8 c 20 c 32 c 44 c 56 a
9 d 21 a 33 b 45 a 57 a
10 c 22 b 34 a 46 b 58 b
11 d 23 d 35 b 47 a 59 b
12 d 24 d 36 a 48 a 60 c

Biology

Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans
1 a 13 b 25 b 37 b 49 a
2 b 14 b 26 d 38 a 50 d
3 a 15 b 27 c 39 c 51 b
4 c 16 c 28 b 40 c 52 a
5 a 17 c 29 b 41 c 53 b
6 d 18 a 30 d 42 a 54 d
7 b 19 c 31 c 43 a 55 c
8 c 20 c 32 b 44 c 56 a
9 a 21 b 33 c 45 b 57 d
10 b 22 c 34 c 46 a 58 d
11 a 23 d 35 a 47 c 59 a
12 b 24 a 36 c 48 c 60 b

General Knowledge

Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans
1 a 5 c 9 c 13 d 17 d
2 a 6 b 10 c 14 c 18 b
3 d 7 c 11 d 15 c 19 c
4 c 8 b 12 a 16 c 20 c

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