CA CPT June 2016 Question Paper, Answer Key and Solutions

CA CPT Dec 2016 Question Paper and Answer KeyCA CPT June 2016 Question Paper and Answer Key can be checked here by CA CPT candidates. The exam has been conducted on June 2016 in morning and afternoon sessions. Answer key of CA CPT exam contains the complete question paper solved indicating correct answer against each question. The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India has notified that to qualify the exam, one must score at least 30% marks in one sitting, and 50% marks in aggregate of all sections.

CA CPT 2016 exam was scheduled to be held on June 2016 from 10:30 AM to 12:30 PM in the morning session, and 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM in the afternoon session. Candidates can get the CA CPT June 2016 Question Paper, Answer Key and Solutions after the exam.

CA CPT 2016 (June) Exam Pattern and Cut Offs

Subject Marks Cut Off Marks (30% in each subject; 50% in total)
Fundamentals of Accounting 60 18
Mercantile Laws 40 12
General Economics 50 15
Quantitative Aptitude 50 15
Total 200 100

CA CPT June 2016 Question Paper and Answer Key – 1st Session

Part A – Fundamentals of Accounting1. A bill drawn and accepted for mutual help is known as ____ bill

  • a) Accommodation
  • b) Trade
  • c) Ordinary
  • d) Retired

2. Financial position of a business concern is ascertained on the basis of _____

  • a) Records prepared under book – keeping process
  • b) Trial balance
  • c) Accounting Reports
  • d) None

3. BRS is a part of _____

  • a) Financial Statements
  • b) Bank Book
  • c) Cash Book
  • d) None

4. Inventory is valued either at cost or market price whichever is lower, according to the principle of ____

  • a) Conservatism
  • b) Matching
  • c) Accrual
  • d) None

5. Debentures can be _________.
I. Mortgage Debentures or Simple Debentures
II. Registered Debentures or Bearer Debentures.
III. Redeemable Debentures or Irredeemable Debentures.
IV. Convertible Debentures or Non-convertible Debentures.

  • a) Both I) and II) above
  • b) Both I) and III) above
  • c) Both II) and III) above
  • d) All of I), II), III) and IV) above.

6. Total assets = Rs. 3,06,000
Secured loans = Rs. 1,00,000
Unsecured loans = Rs. 60,000
Contingent Liabilities = Rs. 1,46,000
Capital = ?

  • a) Rs. 1,00,000
  • b) Rs. 1,46,000
  • c) Rs. 60,000
  • d) Nil

7. Insurance claim received on machinery destroyed by fire is a ____

  • a) Capital receipt
  • b) Revenue receipt
  • c) Capital expenditure
  • d) Revenue Expenditure

8. Opening inventory = Rs. 4,00,000
Cash sales = Rs. 2,00,000
Total sales = Rs. 17,00,000
Selling price = 125% of purchase price
What is the cost of goods sold?

  • a) Rs. 15,60,000
  • b) Rs. 13,60,000
  • c) Rs. 15,00,000
  • d) Rs. 11,00,000

9. In Journal & ledger transactions are recorded in ______ order respectively

  • a) Analytical
  • b) Chronological
  • c) Chronological & Analytical
  • d) Analytical & Chronological

10. According to SEBI guidelines, the minimum share application money is ____

  • a) 2.5% of nominal value of share
  • b) 2.5% of issue price of share
  • c) 25% of nominal value of share
  • d) 25% of issue price of share

11. A decrease in the provision for doubtful debts would result in _____

  • a) Increase in liability
  • b) Decrease in liability
  • c) Decrease in net profit
  • d) Increase in net profit

12. On 05-01-16, Mr. A draws a bill on Mr. B for 30 days after sight. The bill was accepted on 08- 01-16. Then the date of maturity of the bill will be ____

  • a) 08-02-16
  • b) 09-02-16
  • c) 10-02-16
  • d) 11-02-16

13. Purchases = Rs. 25,00,000
70% of the goods are sold
Closing inventory is valued at Rs. 5,00,000 instead of at Rs. 7,50,000.
Which concept has been followed?

  • a) Conservatism
  • b) Cost
  • c) Accrual
  • d) Matching

14. When Del-credere commission is paid, bad debts will be debited to ____ A/c in the books of consignee

  • a) Commission earned
  • b) Consignor
  • c) Credit receivable
  • d) Consignment

15. Credit balance of bank pass book will be ___ to the account holder.

  • a) An asset
  • b) A liability
  • c) A provision
  • d) None

16. P & Q are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3. R is admitted as a new partner for 1/5th share. Then the sacrificing ratio will be ____

  • a) 4 : 6
  • b) 1 : 2
  • c) 5 : 3
  • d) 1 : 1

17. A & B are partners in a firm with capitals of Rs.5,00,000 each. C joined as a new partner for 1/4th share in profits with a capital of Rs.8,00,000. The credit balance of Profit & Loss a/c is Rs.4,00,000. Find the value of hidden goodwill.

  • a) 14,00,000
  • b) 10,00,000
  • c) 18,00,000
  • d) 12,00,000

18. The subscribed share capital of S Ltd. is Rs.80,00,000 divided into shares of Rs.100 each. There were no calls in arrears till the final call was made. The final call made was paid on 77,500 shares. The calls in arrears amounted to Rs.67,500. The final call per share=?

  • a) Rs.27
  • b) Rs.20
  • c) Rs.25
  • d) Rs.62.50

19. If repair cost is Rs.30,000, whitewash expenses are Rs.6,000, cost of extension of building is Rs.3,00,000 and cost of improvement in electrical wiring system is Rs.22,800; the amount to be expensed is

  • a) Rs. 3,58,800.
  • b) Rs. 52,800.
  • c) Rs. 36,000.
  • d) Rs. 3,30,000.

20. Goods sent on consignment = Rs. 2,00,000
Consignor’s expenses = Rs. 5,000
Consignee’s expenses = Rs. 2,000
Cash sales = Rs. 1,00,000
Credit sales = Rs. 1,10,000
Closing Inventory = Rs. 40,000
Ordinary Commission = Rs. 3,000
Del-credere commission = Rs. 2,000
Bad Debts = Rs. 2,000
Find the profit on consignment.

  • a) Rs.38,000
  • b) Rs.36,000
  • c) Rs.40,000
  • d) Rs.43,000

21. Errors can be detected ____

  • a) Before the preparation of Trial Balance
  • b) After the preparation of Trial Balance, but before the preparation of final accounts
  • c) After the preparation of Final accounts (next accounting year)
  • d) All of the above

22. On March 31, 2015 after sale of goods worth Rs.50,000, he is left with the closing inventory of Rs.20,000. This is

  • a) An event
  • b) A transaction
  • c) A transaction as well as an event
  • d) Neither a transaction nor an event

23. A plant was purchased on 01-04-2010 for Rs.3,50,000. The useful life was estimated to be 5 years and scrap value as Rs.50,000. Calculate the rate of depreciation under Straight line method.

  • a) 17.14%
  • b) 20%
  • c) 15%
  • d) 17.5%

24. Opening inventory = Rs. 23,200 Cost of goods sold = Rs. 3,22,800 Closing inventory = Rs. 24,000 Purchases =?

  • a) Rs. 3,22,000
  • b) Rs. 2,99,600
  • c) Rs. 2,98,800
  • d) Rs. 3,23,600

25. Stock worth Rs. 50,000 was destroyed by fire. The claim was fully accepted by the insurance company. The journal entry is

  • a) Stock A/c Dr. 50,000 To Trading A/c 50,000
  • b) P & L A/c Dr. 50,000 To Trading A/c 50,000
  • c) Trading A/c Dr. 50,000 To Insurance claim A/c 50,000
  • d) Insurance claim A/c Dr. 50,000 To Trading A/c 50,000

26. WYE ltd redeemed 1,000, 10% preference shares of Rs.100 each at a premium of Rs.10 per share. The company had a balance of Rs.50,000 in general reserve and Rs.27,000 in Profit & Loss a/c. For the purpose of redemption the company issued 5,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of 20%. The amount to be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve will be

  • a) Rs. 50,000
  • b) Rs. 1,00,000
  • c) Rs. 60,000
  • d) Rs. 77,000

27. Discount received = Rs. 1,000 Provision for discount on creditors = Rs. 1,600 It is desired to make a provision of Rs. 1,100 on creditors. Find out the amount to be transferred to Profit & Loss A/c

  • a) Rs. 500
  • b) Rs. 3,500
  • c) Rs. 1,000
  • d) Rs. 1,500

28. Reserve capital means

  • a) The part of subscribed uncalled capital which will be called up at the time of liquidation only
  • b) Accumulated Profits
  • c) The part of Capital Reserve
  • d) The part of Capital Redemption Reserve

29. Debenture interest

  • a) Is payable only in case of profits
    b) Accumulates in case of losses or inadequate profits
    c) Is payable after the payment of preference dividend but before the payment of equity dividend
    d) Is payable before the payment of any dividend on shares

30. Mr. Sobby draws a two months bill of Rs. 50,000 on Mr. Dobby. Dobby accepts it on 01- 02-16. Sobby discounts it on 15-02-16 at 18% per annum. On the due date of bill Dobby became insolvent and 50 paise in a rupee could only be recovered from his estate. Calculate the amount of bad debt

  • a) Rs. 25,000
    b) Rs. 18,874
    c) Rs. 23,374
    d) Rs. 27,300

31. Opening capital = Rs. 45,000
Interest on capital = Rs. 2,000
Interest on drawings = Rs. 5,000
Drawings = Rs. 14,000
Profit = Rs. 15,000
Closing Capital = ?

  • a) Rs. 63,000
  • b) Rs. 43,000
  • c) Rs. 47,000
  • d) Rs. 30,000

32. Sales for the year ended 31st March, 2010 amounted to Rs.10,00,000. Sales included goods sold to Mr. A for Rs.50,000 at a profit of 20% on cost. Such goods are still lying in the godown at the buyer’s risk. Therefore, such goods should be treated as part of

  • a) Sales
  • b) Closing inventory
  • c) Goods in transit
  • d) Sales return

33. Profit of the year = Rs. 6,00,000 Capital employed = Rs. 4,00,000 Normal rate of return = 15% Calculate the value of goodwill under capitalization method

  • a) Rs. 41,00,000
  • b) Rs. 6,00,000
  • c) Rs. 36,00,000
  • d) Rs. 21,00,000

34. A & B are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 with capitals of Rs.2,50,000 and Rs.2,00,000 respectively. C is admitted as a new partner who brings Rs.50,000 as capital and Rs.16,000 as goodwill for his 1/5th share. The closing capitals of all the partners will be

  • a) Rs. 2,60,000, Rs. 2,06,000, Rs. 50,000
  • b) Rs. 2,58,000, Rs. 2,08,000, Rs. 50,000
  • c) Rs. 2,58,000, Rs. 2,08,000, Rs. 66,000
  • d) Rs. 2,66,000, Rs. 2,00,000, Rs. 50,000

35. If preference shares are redeemed out of divisible profits, the nominal value of preference shares should be transferred to ___

  • a) Capital Reserve A/c
  • b) Capital Redemption Reserve A/c
  • c) General Reserve A/c
  • d) Contingent Reserve A/c

36. Which of the following statements is not true?

  • a) All Personal & Real accounts ultimately show some balance
  • b) The balances of Nominal accounts are transferred to Profit & Loss a/c
  • c) Rent a/c is a personal account but outstanding rent account is a nominal account
  • d) In ledger, accounts are opened separately

37. Which of the following statements is/are false? I. The terms ‘depreciation’, ‘depletion’ and ‘amortization’ convey the same meaning. II. Provision for depreciation A/c is debited when provision for depreciation A/c is created. III. The main purpose of charging the profit and loss A/c with the amount of depreciation is to spread the cost of an asset over its useful life for the purpose of income determination.

  • a) Only I) above
  • b) Only II) above
  • c) Only III) above
  • d) All I) II) and III) above

38.

Product A B C D E
Cost (Rs.) 45,000 57,500 1,37,500 50,000 1,05,000
NRV (Rs.) 47,600 77,500 1,32,500 62,500 1,00,000

What is the value of inventory at the end of the year as per conservatism principle?

  • a) Rs. 3,95,000
  • b) Rs. 3,85,000
  • c) Rs. 4,20,100
  • d) Rs. 3,48,000

39. Sunset Tours has a Rs.70,000 account receivable from Mohan. On January 20, the latter makes a partial payment of Rs.50,000 to Sunset Tours. The journal entry made on January 20 by Sunset Tours to record this transaction includes:

  • a) A Credit to the cash received a/c of Rs.50,000
  • b) A Credit to the account receivable account of Rs.50,000
  • c) A Debit to the cash account of Rs.20,000
  • d) A Debit to the accounts receivable account of Rs.20,000

40. Which of the following can be utilized for redemption of preference shares?

  • a) The proceeds of fresh issue of equity shares
  • b) The proceeds of issue of debentures
  • c) The proceeds of issue of fixed deposit
  • d) All of the above

41. Mr. X consigned goods costing Rs. 1,50,000 to Mr. Y at cost + 25%. 1/10 of the goods were lost in transit. Mr. Y sold 3/5th of the remaining goods at 10% above the invoice price. Calculate the amount of sales.

  • a) Rs. 1,85,625
  • b) Rs. 1,01, 250
  • c) Rs. 1,23,750
  • d) Rs. 1,11,375

42. If goods are sent on sale or return basis, it will be treated as _____

  • a) An ordinary sale and not recorded in the books
  • b) An ordinary sale and recorded in the books as normal sale
  • c) The goods are approved and no entry is passed in the books
  • d) None of these

43. Amount recovered from debtor, which was earlier written off as bad debt is debited to Cash A/c and credited to ___ A/c

  • a) Bad Debts
  • b) Bad debts recovered
  • c) Rahul
  • d) Sales

44. From the following balances find out the total of trial balance.
Capital Rs. 4,00,000
Computer Rs. 25,000
AC & Furniture Rs. 1,00,000
Fixed deposits Rs. 2,00,000
Salaries Rs. 8,00,000
Fees Received Rs. 12,00,000
Traveling expenses Rs. 1,50,000
Rent & office expenses Rs. 2,40,000
Cash Rs. 1,80,000
Bank O.D Rs. 95,000

  • a) Rs. 16,00,000
  • b) Rs. 14,50,000
  • c) Rs. 16,95,000
  • d) Rs. 15,00,000

45. Sohan purchased goods for Rs.18,00,000 and sold 4/5th of the goods for Rs.21,60,000 and met expenses amounting to Rs.3,00,000 during the year, 2015. He counted net profit as Rs.4,20,000. Which of the accounting concepts was followed by him?

  • a) Entity.
  • b) Periodicity.
  • c) Matching.
  • d) Conservatism

46. Aar and Bar were partners in a joint venture sharing profits and losses in the proportion of 4/5th and 1/5th respectively. Aar supplies goods to the value of Rs.50,000 and incurs expenses amounting to Rs.5,400. Bar supplies goods to the value of Rs.14,000 and his expense amount to Rs.800. Bar sells goods on behalf of the joint venture and realizes Rs.92,000. Bar is entitled to a commission of 5 percent on sales. Bar settles his account by bank draft. What will be the final remittance?

  • a) Bar will remit Rs.69,160 to Aar
  • b) Aar will remit Rs.69,160 to Bar
  • c) Aar will remit Rs.69,000 to Bar
  • d) Bar will remit Rs.69,000 to Aar

47. Rent received from a tenant Rs. 18,000 was correctly entered in the cash book and posted to the debit of Rent a/c. The effect of this error on the trial balance will be

  • a) Debit total will be Rs. 36,000 more than the credit total
  • b) Debit total will be Rs. 18,000 more than the credit total
  • c) Subject to other entries being correct, the total will agree
  • d) None of these

48. Oye Ltd. Issued 10,000 equity shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 20%. The money is payable as Rs.30 (including premium) on application, Rs.50 on allotment, Rs.20 on First call & Rs.20 on Final call. The company received applications for 15,000 shares and allotment was made on prorata. H, the holder of 400 shares failed to pay allotment money and on his subsequent failure to pay the 1st call money, the company forfeited his shares. The amount to be transferred to Share Forfeiture A/c at the time of forfeiting his shares will be

  • a) 12,000
  • b) 32,000
  • c) Nil
  • d) 10,000

49. The books of T Ltd. revealed the following information:

Particulars Rs
Opening inventory 7,50,000
Purchases during the year 2014-2015 22,50,000
Sales during the year 2014- 2015 25,00,000

On March 31, 2015, the value of inventory as per physical Inventory-taking was Rs. 10,45,000. The company’s gross profit on sales has remained constant at 25%. The management of the company suspects that some inventory might have been pilfered by a new employee. What is the cost of goods sold & estimated cost of missing inventory?

  • a) Rs. 17,00,000, Rs. 75,000
  • b) Rs. 18,75,000, Rs. 80,000,
  • c) Rs. 18,75,000, Rs. 75,000,
  • d) Rs. 17,00,000, Rs. 80,000,

50. A holder of 100 shares of Rs. 10 each, failed to pay the final call money of Rs. 4 per share. These shares were forfeited and reissued at Rs. 7 per share as fully paid up. The entry on reissue will be

  • a) Bank A/c Dr. 700 To Share capital A/c 700
  • b) Bank A/c Dr. 700 To Share forfeiture A/c 700
  • c) Share forfeiture A/c Dr. 700 To Share capital A/c 700
  • d) Bank A/c Dr. 700 Share forfeiture A/c Dr.300 To Share capital A/c 1000

51. Can a minor be admitted into a joint venture?

  • a) Can be admitted
  • b) Cannot be admitted
  • c) Can be admitted with the consent of other coventurers
  • d) Can be admitted for the benefit of minor

52. Overdraft balance as per Cash book Rs. 4,500 Cheques issued, but not presented Rs. 300, Rs. 150, Rs. 375 Cheques paid into bank account, but not cleared Rs. 1,200 Find the balance as per Pass Book

  • a) Rs. 3,300 Dr.
  • b) Rs. 6,925 Dr.
  • c) Rs. 4,875 Dr.
  • d) Rs. 4,125 Dr.

53. From the following data, find out the gross profit on the inventory sold under weighted average price method
1st Jan – opening inventory – 1000 units @ Rs. 4 per unit
15th Jan – Purchases – 1100 units @ Rs. 5 per unit
30th Jan – Purchases – 1300 units @ Rs. 6 per unit
Sales during the month – 3000 units @ Rs. 10 per unit

  • a) Rs. 14,735
  • b) Rs. 15,000
  • c) Rs. 14,300
  • d) Rs. 15,100

54. X sends out goods costing Rs.2,00,000 to Y. 3/5th of the goods were sold by consignee for Rs.1,40,000.Commission 2% on sales plus 20% of gross sales less all commission exceeds cost price. The amount of commission will be:

  • a) 5,667
  • b) 5,800
  • c) 6,000
  • d) 5,600

55. Study the following table and answer

Particulars Rs.
Opening Inventory 15,000
Closing Inventory 20,000
Purchases 2,80,000
Return outward 7,500
Return inward 10,000
Carriage inward 2,500

If gross profit is 20% of sales, the gross sales will be:

  • a) Rs.3,47,500
  • b) Rs.3,37,500
  • c) Rs.2,70,000
  • d) Rs.3,34,375

56. Rohit, Suman and Rohan are partners sharing profits & losses in the ratio of 2 : 1 : 1. They took a JLP for Rs. 1,00,000. Besides they took policies severally amounting to Rs.50,000 each. Rohit died on 30th September, 2015. The surrender values of the policies will be 30% of the policy values. What is the share of Rohit in the life policies?

  • a) Rs. 90,000
  • b) Rs. 1,25,000
  • c) Rs. 75,000
  • d) Rs. 1,00,000

57. The net profit of X & Co. was Rs.7,02,000, before charging Mehta’s (Manager) salary and commission. Mehta was entitled to a salary of Rs. 6,000 per month plus a commission of 5% on net profit after charging his salary and commission. Calculate the amount payable to Mehta.

  • a) Rs. 72,000
  • b) Rs. 1,02,000
  • c) Rs. 60,000
  • d) Rs. 1,03,500

58. A machine was purchased on 01-04-2012 for Rs.15,00,000. The scrap value is estimated at Rs.50,000. Depreciation is charged at 15% p.a. under WDV method. The machine was sold on 01-07-2015 for Rs.9,04,115. Calculate the profit.

  • a) Rs. 17,472
  • b) Rs. 47,026
  • c) Rs. 17,073
  • d) Rs. 67,472

59. A sent some goods costing Rs.3,500 at a profit of 25% on sale to B on sale or return basis. B returned goods costing Rs.800. At the end of the accounting period i.e. on 31st December, 2014, the remaining goods were neither returned nor were approved by him. The Inventories on approval will be shown in the balance sheet at Rs.

  • a) 2,000.
  • b) 2,700.
    c) 2,700 less 25% of 2,700.
    d) 3,500

60. On 09-01-2016, the physical inventory of a business concern is taken at Rs.70,000. The following transaction took place between 01-01-2016 and 09-01-2016. Goods sold Rs.48,000, at a profit of 25% on cost which includes goods of the sale value of is Rs.5,000 not delivered to customer and of Rs.3,000 delivered on 29-12-2015. Calculate the value of physical inventory as on 31-12-2015.

  • a) Rs. 72,000
  • b) Rs. 1,02,000
  • c) Rs. 30,000
  • d) Rs. 1,00,000

Part B – Mercantile Laws

61. A telegraphed to B “will you sell me your house? Let me know the lowest price” B replied “Lowest price is Rs.900.” A agreed to buy and asked for title deeds. There is no reply from B. Is B under obligation to sell?

  • a) Yes, B should sell the house because the offer with the lowest price is accepted by A
  • b) No, there was no contract because B has communicated only the lowest price
  • c) Yes because communication of lowest price it self-forms a contract
  • d) No, because offer is of negative nature

62. A and B entered into a contract where first part is legal and the second is illegal. Here former part is ____ and later part is ______

  • a) Void, valid
  • b) valid, void
  • c) Void, void
  • d) None

63. An agreement in which consideration is unlawful becomes ____

  • a) void
  • b) voidable
  • c) Valid
  • d) unenforceable

64. Doctrine of privity of contract means:

  • a) Third party can sue upon a contract
  • b) Consideration must move at the desire of promisor
  • c) Consideration may move from promisee or any other person
  • d) Consideration is valid when it moves at desire of promisor

65. Which is false regarding consideration?

  • a) Consideration must be adequate
  • b) Consideration must be real
  • c) Consideration may move from third party
  • d) All of the above

66. In case of sale of shares :

  • a) Shares can be sold to minor
  • b) Minor’s guardian can act on behalf of minor
  • c) Minor is a share holder for profits, but he has no voting rights .
  • d) Minor can become a member only in Register of members.

67. The agreement is void with ____

  • a) Mistake
  • b) Misrepresentation
  • c) Coercion
  • d) Fraud

68. In case of misrepresentation, parties have option to

  • a) Alter the contract
  • b) Rescind the contract
  • c) Novate contract
  • d) Accord the contract

69. A buys a lottery ticket of Rs. 500/-. It comes under ____ agreement/contract.

  • a) Wagering
  • b) contingent
  • c) Uncertain
  • d) certain

70. An agreement in restraint of marriage is _____

  • a) Fraud
  • b) Misrepresentation
  • c) Mistake
  • d) Opposed to public policy

71. In case of wagering agreement, the event is __

  • a) Collateral
  • b) Certain
  • c) Uncertain
  • d) None

72. Wagering agreement is of _______ nature

  • a) Contingent
  • b) Illegal
  • c) Void
  • d) None

73. If a creditor does not file a suit against buyer for recovery of price with is 3 years, the debt becomes

  • a) Time barred and irrecoverable
  • b) Time barred and recoverable
  • c) Not time based
  • d) None

74. _______ of contract can take place without consideration

  • a) Alteration
  • b) Rescission
  • c) Novation
  • d) Remission

75. The subsequent change in law leads to ____

  • a) Supervening impossibility
  • b) Partial impossibility
  • c) Commercial impossibility
  • d) Material alteration

76. On which of the following grounds, a partner need not apply to the court for dissolution of the firm:

  • a) Insanity of partner
  • b) Perpetual losses
  • c) Misconduct of partner
  • d) Business becoming unlawful

77. A promise can be performed by

  • a) Promisor himself
  • b) Agent
  • c) Legal representation
  • d) All of the above

78. Some persons formed a group to collect money for the purpose of giving financial assistance to widows. Here is:

  • a) Partnership
  • b) no partnership
  • c) Either (a) or (b)
  • d) None

79. A partner can retire form the firm

  • a) When assignee is appointed
  • b) When he attains certain age
  • c) In accordance with partnership deed
  • d) When the nominee becomes partner

80. In case of no agreement among partners insolvency of partner leads to:

  • a) Dissolution of firm
  • b) Dissolution of partnership as well as firm
  • c) Neither dissolution of firm nor dissolution of Partnership
  • d) None

81. Which of the following is/ are partnership/s?

  • a) A and B invest money to buy goods in auction by customs authorities, to sell and to share profits there on equally.
  • b) Joint Hindu family business
  • c) A and B are Co-owners of a house and handed over it to C on lease basis They agreed to share rent equally
  • d) None

82. Right of a partner to open a bank account on behalf of the firm in his own name is not with in the scope of ____ authority.

  • a) Implied
  • b) Express
  • c) Specified
  • d) Restrictive

83. Non registration of the firm will not effect the following:

  • a) Claim of set off below Rs.100/-
  • b) Suit by a third party against partners
  • c) Claim by official receiver of insolvent partner
  • d) All of the above

84. Which of the following is incorrect?

  • a) A partner can be expelled by majority of Partners
  • b) A partner can be expelled in good faith
  • c) Power to expel partner must exist in Contract between partners
  • d) Opportunity of being heard is not required at the time of expulsion of partner

85. The partner who gets share its profits:

  • a) Sub partner
  • b) Nominal partner
  • c) Active partner
  • d) None

86. In case of partnership, dissolution can be done by notice in case of

  • a) Partnership at will
  • b) Partnership for fixed time
  • c) Particular partnership
  • d) None

87. A,B and C are partners in a financial firm. X a customer of firm deposits certain securities with the firm for safe custody. A & B sell away the securities without the knowledge of C. who will be liable for damages?

  • a) Only A and B
  • b) A,B, and C are liable to x for the full values
  • c) A,B, and C are liable for nominal value
  • d) Nobody will be liable

88. A Contracts with B to sell a new Car. But A delivers an old Car. Here is:

  • a) breach of contract
  • b) breach of exchange
  • c) breach of condition
  • d) breach of guarantee

89. Caveat emptor means:

  • a) The seller should be beware
  • b) The buyer should be beware
  • c) Both a) & b)
  • d) None

90. In an agreement to sell, transfer of property takes pace in _____

  • a) past
  • b) present
  • c) Future
  • d) both b) & c)

91. In a contract of Sale, Condition is ____ to main purpose of contract.

  • a) Essential
  • b) Collateral
  • c) Non essential
  • d) None

92. Auctioneer is ____ of owner of goods

  • a) Seller
  • b) Bailee
  • c) Agent
  • d) None

93. In which of the following cases, the seller can exercise right of stoppage of goods in transit:

  • a) When buyer becomes insolvent
  • b) When possession is not transferred
  • c) When seller is unpaid
  • d) None

94. X agrees to deliver 100 kgs. Of wheat in exchange of 10 liters of milk. It is:

  • a) Contract of sale
  • b) Agreement to sell
  • c) Goods sent on approval
  • d) Barter

95. In an agreement to sell where goods are under the possession of seller and buyer breaches the contract, the remedy available to seller is :

  • a) Suit for damages
  • b) No suit can be filed
  • c) Suit for price
  • d) None

96. In a contract of sale, consideration can be :

  • a) In any form other than money
  • b) Only in the form of money
  • c) Gratuitous or non-gratuitous
  • d) None

97. A document becomes document of title to goods if _______ undertaking to deliver the goods to holder exists

  • a) Statutory
  • b) Conditional
  • c) Unconditional
  • d) None

98. A horse is sold on sale or return basis where trial period is 3 days. Horse dies on second day with out fault of either party. Who has to bear the loss?

  • a) Seller
  • b) Buyer
  • c) Both
  • d) None

99. The buyer of goods gets good title, if the seller had acquired goods under

  • a) Void Contract
  • b) Contract
  • c) Voidable Contract
  • d) None

100. When agent sells goods on behalf of principal, the buyer gets good title where the agent is

  • a) Ordinary agent
  • b) Mercantile agent
  • c) Deemed agent
  • d) None

Key – Part A – Fundamentals of Accounting

1. A 13. A 25. D 37. B 49. B
2. C 14. A 26. A 38. B 50. D
3. D 15. A 27. A 39. B 51. B
4. A 16. C 28. A 40. A 52. C
5. D 17. B 29. D 41. D 53. A
6. B 18. A 30. A 42. B 54. A
7. A 19. C 31. B 43. B 55. A
8. B 20. A 32. A 44. C 56. A
9. C 21. D 33. C 45. C 57. B
10. D 22. A 34. A 46. A 58. A
11. D 23. A 35. B 47. A 59. B
12. C 24. D 36. C 48. D 60. B

Key – Part B – Mercantile Laws

61. B 69. A 77. D 85. C 93. A
62. B 70. D 78. B 86. A 94. D
63. A 71. C 79. C 87. B 95. A
64. A 72. A 80. B 88. C 96. B
65. A 73. A 81. A 89. B 97. C
66. B 74. D 82. A 90. C 98. A
67. A 75. A 83. D 91. A 99. C
68. B 76. D 84. D 92. C 100. B

CA CPT June 2016 Question Paper and Answer Key – 2nd Session

Part A – General Economics

1. Law of demand explains inverse relationship between _______

  • a) Price and demand
  • b) Demand and Price
  • c) Income and demand
  • d) Demand and income

2. Which of the following would cause the demand curve for auto mobiles shift to the left?

  • a) An increase in price of auto mobiles
  • b) An increase in the cost of production of auto mobiles
  • c) Increase in buyer’s income
  • d) An increase in the interest rate paid to borrow money to pay for auto mobiles

3. What is Net National Product?

  • a) The money value of final goods & services produce annually in the year
  • b) The money value of annual service generation in the account
  • c) The money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  • d) The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

4. The law of variable proportions is associated with _____

  • a) Short period
  • b) Long period
  • c) Both short & long periods
  • d) Neither short nor long period

5. Balance of payments _____

  • a) Current account for goods and services only
  • b) A capital account of financial assets only
  • c) Official settlement accounts only
  • d) All of the above

6. Iso-Quant is also known as:

  • a) Product possibilities curve
  • b) Production indifference curve
  • c) Indifference curve
  • d) None of these

7. Which of the following is not a Khariff crop?

  • a) Jowar
  • b) Maize
  • c) Groundnut
  • d) Wheat

8. The Philips curve describe the relationship between:

  • a) Savings & investment
  • b) Marginal tax rate and tax revenue
  • c) Unemployment rate and inflation rate
  • d) The budget deficit and the trade deficit

9. The concept of ‘entitlements’ was introduced by ______

  • a) Pranab Mukharjee
  • b) Amartya sen
  • c) Manmohan singh
  • d) Jagadeesh bhagawathi

10. Micro Economics is the study of ________

  • a) Individual parts of economy
  • b) Economy as a whole
  • c) Choice making .
  • d) Development of economy

11. Comparing a monopoly and competitive firm the monopolist will ________

  • a) Produce less at lower price
  • b) Produce more at lower price
  • c) Produce less at higher price
  • d) Produce zero at lower price

12. The market price of a good is more than opportunity cost of producing it, then _____

  • a) Market price increases in the long run
  • b) Producer will increase supply in the long run
  • c) Resources will flow outward and there will be a decline in supply
  • d) There will not be any change until demand and supply are equal

13. The second glass of lemonade gives lesser satisfaction to a thirsty boy. This is clear case of

  • a) Law of variable proportions
  • b) Law of diminishing returns
  • c) Law of diminishing marginal utility
  • d) Law of supply

14. Human capital refers to:

  • a) Savings by individuals
  • b) Mobilisation of savings
  • c) Human skills and abilities
  • d) Productive investment

15. Which of the following statement is false ?

  • a) Land has indestructible power
  • b) Land is passive factor
  • c) Capital is nature’s gift
  • d) Labour is mobile

16. Among all the states of India _____ has the lowest birth rate

  • a) Kerala
  • b) Maharastra
  • c) Delhi
  • d) Uttar Pradesh

17. What is the average calories required in rural areas for measuring poverty?

  • a) 2,400 calories per person per day
  • b) 2,800 calories per person per day
  • c) 2,100 calories per person per day
  • d) None of these

18. Multi Dimensional Poverty index is used by ______ to measure poverty

  • a) Human Development Report
  • b) Tendulkar committee
  • c) NSSO
  • d) Planning commission of India

19. Which of the following statements defines the density of population?

  • a) No. of persons living per unit area
  • b) No. of persons living in a country
  • c) Change in the no. of inhabitants of a country during a specific per unit of time
  • d) Absolute numbers added every year

20. Which of the following statements about repo rate is not correct?

  • a) At this rate RBI borrows money from banks for short period
  • b) A reduction repo rate helps bank to get money at cheaper rate
  • c) An increase in repo rate makes borrowings from RBI expensive
  • d) At this rate banks borrow money from RBI

21. Which of the following is broad money?

  • a) M1
  • b) M2
  • c) M3
  • d) M4

22. Inflation is _______

  • a) Persistent increase in general level of price
  • b) Persistent increase in price of individual goods, services & resources
  • c) One time increase in general level of price
  • d) One time increase in price of individual goods, services & resources

23. Which of the following is not correct?

  • a) Direct tax is proportional in nature
  • b) An indirect tax is a progressive in nature
  • c) A Direct tax cannot be shifted
  • d) An indirect tax can be shifted to others

24. Over the years in India cost of tax collection is

  • a) Increases
  • b) Decreases
  • c) Remains unchanged
  • d) Indeterminate

25. The ratio of dependents to working age population is called ______

  • a) Demographic dividend
  • b) Demographic transition
  • c) Unemployment ratio
  • d) Dependency ratio

26. Special Drawing Rights was created by ______

  • a) WTO
  • b) World Bank
  • c) IMF
  • d) UNO

27. India is a _____ economy

  • a) Capitalistic
  • b) Socialistic
  • c) Mixed
  • d) Federal

28. Which one of the following expressions is correct for marginal revenue?

29. The vertical difference between TVC and TC is equal to ________

  • a) MC
  • b) AVC
  • c) TFC
  • d) None

30. Which of the following is a direct tax?

  • a) Personal income tax
  • b) Sales tax
  • c) Service tax
  • d) Excise duties

31. ______ is the best indicator of economic development of any country

  • a) Agriculture
  • b) Transport
  • c) Gross production
  • d) Percapita income

32. The price elasticity at mid point of a straight line on demand curve is

  • a) = 0
  • b) > 1
  • c) < 1
  • d) = 1

33. If equilibrium is present in a market, then

  • a) Quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied
  • b) Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied
  • c) Quantity supplied exceeds quantity supplied
  • d) The price of the product will tend to rise

34. Which of the following is not a property of indifference curve?

  • a) Indifference curve always touch X-axis
  • b) Indifference curve has negative slope
  • c) Indifference curve is convex to origin
  • d) Indifference curves never intersect each other

35. What happens to marginal cost when average cost increases?

  • a) Marginal cost is below average cost
  • b) Marginal cost is above average cost
  • c) Marginal cost is equal to average variable cost
  • d) Marginal cost is equal to average cost

36. Which of the following statement is not correct about the WTO?

  • a) WTO came to existence on 1st January, 1995
  • b) WTO is main organ for implementing multilateral trade agreements
  • c) WTO is legal entity
  • d) WTO has lesser scope than its predecessor GATT

37. If the price of a commodity is fixed, then every increase in its sold quantity the total revenue will ______ and the marginal revenue will ____

  • a) Increases, also increases
  • b) Increases, remain unchanged
  • c) Increases, decreases
  • d) Remains fixed, increase

38. A discriminating monopolist will charge a higher price in the market in which the demand for its product is

  • a) Highly elastic
  • b) Relatively elastic
  • c) Relatively inelastic
  • d) Perfectly elastic

39. Fixed cost curve is normally

  • a) Starts from the Origin
  • b) ‘U’ shaped
  • c) Vertical
  • d) Horizontal

40. Find out value of X?

  • a) 30
  • b) 54
  • c) 57
  • d) 15

41. What does devaluation of a currency mean?

  • a) Decrease in the internal value of money
  • b) Decrease in the external value of money
  • c) Decrease both in the internal and external values of money
  • d) None of these

42. The reason for the kinked demand curve is that

  • a) The oligopolist believe that competitors will follow output increases but not output reductions
  • b) The oligopolist believe that competitors will follow price increases but not output reductions
  • c) The oligopolist believe that competitors will follow price cuts but not price rises
  • d) The oligopolist believe that competitors will follow price increases but not output increases

43. A rational producer will produce in the stage in which marginal product is positive and

  • a) MP > AP
  • b) MP = AP
  • c) MP < AP
  • d) MP is ‘O’

44. As the price of commodity increases, normally its supply

  • a) Decreases
  • b) Remain unchanged
  • c) Increases
  • d) Can’t be determined

45. An economy achieves “productive efficiency” when:

  • a) Resources are employed in their most highly valued uses
  • b) The best resources are employed
  • c) The total number of goods produced is greatest
  • d) Goods and services are produced at least cost and no resources are wasted

46. Price elasticity of demand for a product is infinite under

  • a) Perfect competition
  • b) Monopolistic competition
  • c) Monopoly
  • d) Oligopoly

47. If a firm under monopoly wants to sell more, its average revenue curve will be a _____ line

  • a) Upward sloping
  • b) Downward sloping
  • c) Vertical
  • d) Horizontal

48. The share of which one of the following sectors has increased rapidly in recent years in the GDP of India

  • a) Agriculture
  • b) Industry
  • c) Services
  • d) All of the above

49. The marginal rate of substitution ____ as a consumer moves on indifference curve

  • a) Increases
  • b) Diminishes
  • c) Remains unchanged
  • d) Becomes zero

50. An indifference curve slopes down towards right since more of one commodity and less of another result in:

  • a) Same satisfaction
  • b) Greater satisfaction
  • c) Maximum satisfaction
  • d) Decreasing expenditure

Part B – Quantitative Aptitude

1. The integral part of a logarithm is called ____, and the decimal part of a logarithm is called _____.

  • a) Mantissa, Characteristic
  • b) Characteristic, Mantissa
  • c) Whole, Decimal
  • d) None of these

52.

  • a) 0
  • b) 1
  • c) 5
  • d) 60

53. If log4 (x2 +x) log4 (x + 1) = 2 then the value of x is

  • a) 2
  • b) 3
  • c) 16
  • d) 8

54.

55.

56.

57.

  • a) Arithmetic Progression
  • b) Geometric Progression
  • c) Both A.P & G.P
  • d) None of these

58.

59. >A G.P(Geometric Progression)consists of 2n terms. If the sum of the terms occupying the odd places is S1 and that of the terms in even places is S2 , the common ratio of the progression is

60. If a line passes through the midpoint of the line segment joining the points (-3,-4) & (-5,6) and its slope is 4/5 then the equation of the line is

  • a) 4x – 5y + 21 = 0
  • b) 4x – 5y + 11 = 0
  • c) 5x – 4y + 21 = 0
  • d) 5x + 4y + 11 = 0

61.

62.

63

64. Let E1, E2 are two linear equations in two variables x and y. (0, 1) is a solution for both the equations E1 & E2. (2, -1) is a solution of equation E1 only and (-2, -1) is a solution of equation E2 only then E1, E2 are ______.

  • a) x = 0, y = 1
  • b) 2x – y = -1, 4x + y = 1
  • c) x + y = 1, x – y = -1
  • d) x + 2y = 2, x + y = 1

65. If difference between the roots of the equation x2 kx + 8 = 0 is 4 then the value of K is

66.

  • a) 0
  • b) 1
  • c) -1
  • d) Doesn’t exist

67.

68.

69.

70.

71. There are 10 students in a class, including 3 girls. The number of ways arrange them in a row, when any two girls out of them never come together

72. In how many ways can a selection of 6 out of 4 teachers and 8 students be done so as to include atleast two teachers?

  • a) 220
  • b) 672
  • c) 896
  • d) 968

73. The maximum number of points of intersection of 10 circles will be

  • a) 2
  • b) 20
  • c) 90
  • d) 180

74. x, y, z together starts a business. If x invests 3 times as much as y invests and y invests two third of what z invests, then the ratio of capitals of x, y, z is _______

  • a) 3 : 9 : 2
  • b) 6 : 3 : 2
  • c) 3 : 6 : 2
  • d) 6 : 2 : 3

75. If an amount is kept at Simple Interest, it earns Rs.600 in first 2 years but when kept at Compound Interest it earns at interest of Rs.660 for the same period; then the rate of interest and principle amount respectively are

  • a) 20%; Rs.1200
  • b) 10%; Rs.1200
  • c) 20%; Rs.1500
  • d) 10%; Rs.1500

76. Mr. X bought an electronic item for Rs.1000. What would be the future value of the same item after two years, if the value is compounded semiannually at the rate of 22% per annum?

  • a) Rs.1488.40
  • b) Rs.1518.07
  • c) Rs.2008.07
  • d) Rs.2200.00

77.

78. Two dice are tossed what is the probability that the total is divisible by 3 or 4.

  • a) 20/36
  • b) 21/36
  • c) 14/36
  • d) None

79. If 2 dice are rolled simultaneously then the probability that their sum is neither 3 nor 6 is

  • a) 0.5
  • b) 0.75
  • c) 0.25
  • d) 0.80

80. In a game, cards are thoroughly shuffled and distributed equally among four players. What is the probability that a specific player gets all the four kings?

81. A bag contains 4 red and 5 black balls. Another bag contains 5 red, 3 black balls. If one ball is drawn at random from each bag. Then the probability that one red and one black ball drawn is _______.

  • a) 12/72
  • b) 25/72
  • c) 37/72
  • d) 13/72

82. If the mean of two numbers is 30 and Geometric Mean is 24 then what will be those two numbers?

  • a) 36 and 24
  • b) 30 and 30
  • c) 48 and 12
  • d) None of these

83.

  • a) 0.71
  • b) 1.39
  • c) 1.75
  • d) None

84. If same amount is added to or subtracted from all the value of the individual series then the standard deviation and variance both shall be

  • a) Changed
  • b) Unchanged
  • c) Same
  • d) None of these

85. The SD of first n natural numbers is ____

86. If mean and coefficient of variation of the marks of n students is 20 and 80 respectively. What will be variance of them

  • a) 256
  • b) 16
  • c) 25
  • d) None of these

87. If r = 0.6 then the coefficient of non determination is _____

  • a) 0.4
  • b) -0.6
  • c) 0.36
  • d) 0.64

88. If the coefficient of correlation between x and y variables is – 0.90 then what will be the coefficient of determination

  • a) 0.10
  • b) 0.81
  • c) 0.94
  • d) None

89. The regression are as follows Regression equation of X on Y : 6X-Y=22 Regression equation of Y on X : 64X-45Y=24 What will be the mean of X and Y?

90. Purchasing power of money is

  • a) Reciprocal of price index number
  • b) Equal to price index number
  • c) Unequal to price index number
  • d) None of these

91. In the year 2010 the monthly salary was Rs.24,000. The consumer price index number was 140 in the year 2010 which rises to 224 in the year 2016. If he has to be rightly compensated what additional monthly salary to be paid to him

  • a) Rs. 14,400
  • b) Rs. 38,400
  • c) Rs. 7,200
  • d) None of these

92. The two lines of regression become identical when

  • a) r = 1
  • b) r = -1
  • c) r = 0
  • d) a) or b)

93. The suitable index numbers for the comparison of every year is ____

  • a) Fixed base index number
  • b) Fisher’s ideal index number
  • c) Chain base index number
  • d) Both a) and c)

94. Data collected on religion from the census reports are

  • a) Primary data
  • b) Secondary data
  • c) Sample data
  • d) a) or b)

95. The normal curve is

  • a) Positively skewed
  • b) Negatively skewed
  • c) Symmetrical
  • d) All these

96. For a Poisson variate X, P(X=1)=P(X=2). What is the mean of X?

  • a) 1
  • b) 3/2
  • c) 2
  • d) 5/2

97. In a discrete random variable follows uniform distribution and assumes only the values 8,9,11,15,18,20. Then P(X < 15) is ____

  • a) 1/2
  • b) 1/3
  • c) 2/3
  • d) 2/7

98. A sample may be defined as a part of population is selected with a view to representing in all its ____

  • a) Units
  • b) Characteristics
  • c) Costs
  • d) Errors

99. The measure of divergence is ____ as a size of the sample approaches that of the population

  • a) More
  • b) Less
  • c) Same
  • d) None

100. A parameter is a characteristic of

  • a) Population
  • b) Sample
  • c) Both a) & b)
    d) None of the above

Key – Part A – General Economics

1. A 11. C 21. C 31. D 41. B
2. D 12. B 22. A 32. D 42. C
3. A 13. C 23. B 33. A 43. C
4. A 14. C 24. A 34. A 44. C
5. D 15. C 25. D 35. B 45. D
6. B 16. A 26. C 36. D 46. A
7. D 17. A 27. C 37. B 47. B
8. C 18. A 28. D 38. C 48. C
9. B 19. A 29. C 39. D 49. B
10. C 20. A 30. A 40. C 50. A

Key – Part B – Quantitative Aptitude

51. B 61. D 71. A 81. C 91. A
52. B 62. A 72. B 82. C 92. D
53. C 63. A 73. C 83. B 93. C
54. B 64. C 74. D 84. B 94. B
55. A 65. D 75. C 85. A 95. C
56. D 66. D 76. B 86. A 96. C
57. A 67. C 77. A 87. D 97. C
58. D 68. A 78. A 88. B 98. B
59. C 69. B 79. D 89. C 99. B
60. A 70. C 80. B 90. A 100. A

About the CA CPT June 2016 Question Paper and Answer Key

ICAI, the conducting body, does not officially publish question papers or answer keys of CA CPT exam. In order to help candidates get a rough idea of the marks scored in exam, and also for CA CPT preparation for candidates who will apply for upcoming exams, the CA CPT question papers and solutions are published unofficially by several coaching institutes. If you have appeared in the Chartered Accountants Common Proficiency Test on June 19, 2016, you can check here the CA CPT June 2016 Question Paper, Answer Key and Solutions. Most of the questions are based on memory recall and answers solved after review of the questions and options.

  • The question paper shall contain 200 questions in all.
  • 60 questions are based on Fundamentals of Accounting.
  • 40 questions are on Mercantile Laws.
  • 50 questions in the second session are on General Economics.
  • 50 questions are asked on Quantitative Aptitude.
  • All the questions are objective type (MCQs).
  • Total duration of exam is 4 hours.
  • There is negative marking for incorrect answer.

CA CPT June 2016 Result

CA CPT 2016 result of exam held on June 19, 2016 was announced in July 18, 2016. ICAI maintains a very transparent and organized structure for exams organization and results announcements.

All Previous Year CA CPT Question Papers

Discussion - If you have any query / feedback comment here.

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