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CLAT 2009 Question Paper with Answers

CLAT 2009 Marks Distribution section wise, Question Paper and Answers are given below.

CLAT 2009 Question Paper

SECTION- I: English Including Comprehension

PART – A

Instruction: (Questions 1-10), Read the given passage carefully and answer tile questions that follow. Shade tile appropriate answer in tile space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.

Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark. (Total 10 marks)

There is a fairly universal sentiment that the use of nuclear weapons is clearly contrary to morality and that its production probably so, dues not go far enough. These activities are not only opposed to morality but also to law if the legal objection can be added to the moral, the argument against the use and the manufacture of these weapons will considerably be reinforced. Now the time is ripe to evaluate the responsibility of scientists who knowingly use their expertise for the construction of such weapons, which has deleterious effect on mankind.

To this- must be added the fact that more than 50 percent of the skilled scientific manpower in the world is now engaged in the armaments industry. How appropriate i[ is that all this valuable skill should be devoted to the manufacture of weapons of death in a world of poverty is a question that must touch the scientific conscience.

A meeting of biologists on the Long-Term Worldwide Biological consequences of nuclear war added frightening dimension to those forecasts. Its report suggested that the long biological effects resulting from climatic changes may at least be as serious as the immediate ones. Sub-freezing temperatures, low light levels, and high doses of ionizing and ultraviolet radiation extending for many months after a large-scale nuclear war could destroy the biological support system of civilization, at least in the Northern Hemisphere. Productivity in natural and agricultural ecosystems could be severely restricted for a year or more. Post war survivors would face starvation as well as freezing conditions in the dark and be exposed to near lethal doses of radiation. If, as now seems possible, the, Southern Hemisphere were affected also, global disruption of the biosphere could ensue. In any event, there would be severe consequences, even in the areas not affected directly, because of the inter-dependence of the world economy. In either case the extinction of a large fraction of the earth’s animals, plants and microorganism seems possible. The population size of Homo sapiens conceivably could be reduced to prehistoric levels or below, and extinction of the human species itself cannot be excluded.

1. Choose the word, which is most opposite in meaning of the word, printed in bold as used in the passage Deleterious.

(a) Beneficial (b) Harmful
(c) Irreparable (d) Non-cognizable

2. The author’s most important objective of writing the above passage seems to — —-

(a) Highlight the use of nuclear weapons as an clleclive pnpulauun control measures.
(b) Illustrate the devastating effects of use of nuclear sveapuns on mankind.
(c) Duly highlight the supremacy of’ the nations which possess nucical weapons.
(d) Summarise the long biological effects of use of nuclear weapons.

3. The scientists engaged in manufacturing destructive weapons are ———-.

(a) Very few in number
(b) Irresponsible and incompetent
(c) More than half of the total number
(d) Engaged in the armaments industry against their desire

4. According [o the passage, the argument on use and manufacture of nuclear weapons

(a) Does not stand the test of legality
(b) Possesses legal strength although it does not have moral standing (c) Is acceptable only on moral grounds
(d) Becomes stronger if legal and moral considerations are combined

5. The author of the passage seems to be of the view that

(a) Utilization of scientific skills in manufacture of weapons is appropriate.
(b) Manufacture of weapons of death would help eradication of poverty.
(c) Spending money on manufacture of weapons may be justifiable subject to the availability of funds.
(d) Utilization of valuable knowledge for manufacture of lethal weapons is inhuman,

6. Which of the following is one of the consequences of nuclear war?

(a) Fertility of land will last for a year or so.
(b) Post-war survivors being very few will have abundant food.
(c) Lights would be cooler and more comfortable.
(d) Southern Hemisphere would remain quite safe in the post-war period.

7. Which of the following best explains the word devoted, as used in the passage?

(a) Dedicated for a good cause (b) Utilised for betterment
(c) Abused for destruction (d) Underutilised

8. The biological consequences of nuclear war as given in the passage include all the following, except

(a) Fall in temperature below zero degree Celsius
(b) Ultraviolet radiation
(c) High does of ionizing
(d) Abundant food for smaller population.

9. It appears from the passage that the use of nuclear weapons is considered against morality by

(a) Only such of those nations who cannot afford to manufacture and sell weapons
(b) Alnuoat all the nations of the world
(c) Only the superpowers who can afford to manuJacture and sell weapons
(d) Most of the scientists devote their valuable skills to manufacture nuclear weapons.

10. Which of the following statements I, II, III and IV is definitely true in the context of the passage?
(I) There is every likelihood of survival of the human species as a consequence of nuclear war.
(II) Nuclear war risks and harmful effects are highly exaggerated.
(III) The post war survivors would be exposed to the benefits of non-lethal radiation.
(IV) Living organisms in the areas which we not directly affected by nuclear was would also suffer.

(a) I (b) III (c) II (d) IV

PART – B

Instructions: (Questions I1-15). Three of the four words given in these questions are spelt wrong. Select the word that is spelt correct and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.

Marks : Each question carries 1 (One) mark. (Total 5 marks)

11. (a) enaissance (b) renaisance (c) renaissence (d) renaisence

12. (a) malaese (b) melaize (c) melaise (d) malaise

13. (a) irelevant (b) itrelevent (c) irrevlevant (d) irrellevant

14. (a) survilance (b) surveillance (c) surveilance (d) surveilliancc

15. (a) gaiety (b) gaietly (c) gaeity (d) gaitty

PART – C

Instructions: (Questions 16-20), Given below are a few foreign language phrases that are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each or the phrases and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.

Marks : Each question carries 1 (One) mark.     (Total 5 Marks)

16. Mala fide

(a) in good faith (b) in bad faith
(c) without any faith (d) with full faith

17. Pro rata

(a) at the rate of (b) at quoted rate
(c) in proportion (d) beyond all proportion

18. Vice versa

(a) in verse (b) versatile verse
(c) in consonance with (d) the other way round

19. Ab initio

(a) from the very beginning (b) high initiative
(c) things done later (d) without initiative

20. Alibi

(a) every where (b) else where
(c) no where (d) without any excuse

PART – D

Instructions: (Questions 21-25), Some idioms given below are commonly used.  Choose the correct meaning for each of the idioms and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.

Marks: Each question carries 1 (One) mark. (Total 5 marks)

21. To give the game away

(a) To lose the game (b) To give a walk-over in a game
(c) To reveal the secret (d) To play the game badly

22. To cool one’s heels

(a) To Close the Chapter (b) To walk on the heels
(c) To kick someone whh the heels (d) To wait and rest for some time

23. To bury the hatchet

(a) To light with the hatchet (b) To lot get the enmity
(c) To bury the treasure under ground (d) To pick up enmity

24. Gift of the gab

(a) Gift for hard work (b) Gift undeserved
(c) Gift of being a good conversationalist (d) Gift from unknown person

25. To smell a rat

(a) To suspect a trick (b) To detect a foul smell
(c) To behave like a rat (d) To trust blindly

PART – E

Instructions: (Questions 26-35), Given below are sentences with a blank in each sentence. Choose the right answer to fill in the blank by shading your
answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.

Marks : Each question carries 1 (One) mark. (Total 10 marks)

26. Some people believe that in emotional maturity men are inferior ………women.

(a) Than (b) To (c) From (d) Against

27. My father was annoyed …………… me.

(a) Towards (b) Against (c) With (d) Upon

28. Some orthodox persons are averse ………….. drinking liquor.

(a) Against (b) For (c) Towards (d) To

29. The Cinema Hall was on fire and the Cinema owner had t0 send ……….the Fire Brigade.

(a) For (b) Through (c) Off (d) In

30. lie was not listening ……………. I was saying.

(a) Thai (b) Which (c)’fuwhat (d) What

31, Drinking country liquor al marriage is a custom …………… certain tribes,

(a) In (b) Among (c) Between (d) With

32, The struggle forjustice brings………….. the best of moral qualities of men.

(a) Forward (b) About (c) In (d) Out

33. If he …………… a horse he would Ily.

(a) Was (b) Were (c) Is (d) Goes

34. Mohan has a bad habit of ………. at on odd hour.

(a) Turning up (b) Turning in (c) Turning over (d) Turning Off

35. He must refrain ……………. immoral conducts.

(a) Off (b) Through (c) From (d) Against

PART –F

Instructions: (Questions 36-40), The constituent sentences of a passage have been jumbled up. Read jumbled sentences carefully and then choose the
option which shows the best sequence of sentences of the passage and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR
Answer Sheet.

Marks : Each question carries 1 (One) mark. (Total 5 marks)

36. (i) The Collector said that the Dams should receive
(ii) To ensure uninterrupted
(iii) Water up to a particular level
(iv) Supply of water for irrigation
The best sequence is:
(a) ii, i, iv, iii (b) i, iii, ii, iv
(c) iv, i, iii, ii (d) ii, iv, i, iii

37. (i) He loved to distribute them among small kids.
(ii) He wore a long, loose shirt with many pockets.
(iii) And in doing so his eyes brightened.
(iv) The pockets of his shin bulged with toffees and chocolates.
The best sequence is:
(a) ii, i, iii, iv (b) i, iv, ii, iii
(c) iv, i, iii, ii (d) ii, iv, i, iii

38. (i) As we all know, a legislation
(ii) Needs the assent of the President
(iii) Passed by the Houses of Parliament
(iv) To become law.
The best sequence is:
(a) i, iii, ii, iv (b) i, iv, ii, iii
(c) iv, i, iii, ii (d) ii, iv, i, iii

39. (i) The farmers grow food for the whole country.
(ii) And therefore it is our duty to improve their lot.
(iii) Yet these fellows are exploited by the rich.
(iv) Hence they are the most useful members of the society.
The best sequence is:
(a) ii, i, iv, iii (b) i, iv, ii, iii
(c) i, iv, iii, ii (d) ii, iv, i, iii

40. (i) The ripples looked enchanting in the light of the Sun.
(ii) We went to the pond.
(iii) We flung stones to create ripples.
(iv) We stood knee-deep in the muddy water of the pond.
The best sequence is:
(a) ii, i, iv, iii (b) ii, iv, iii, i
(c) iv, i, iii, ii (d) iv, ii, i, iii

SECTION – II – General Knowledge/ Current Affairs

Instructions: (Questions 41-90), Out of the four answers, shade the correct answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.

Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark (total 50 marks)

41. Capital market means

(a) Mutual Funds (b) Money Market
(c) Securities Market (d) Banking Business

42. From which river would the National River Project he started?

(a) Yamuna (b) Gomti
(c) Ganga (d) Krishna

43. “The Audacity of Hope” is a honk written by

(a) Bill Clinton (b) Barack Obama
(c) Gorge Bush (d) Bill Gates

44. ‘ WPI’ is used as an acronym for

(a) World Price Index (b) World Price Indicators
(c) Wholesale Price Index (d) Wholesale Price indicators

45. If the tax rate increases with the higher level of income, it shall be called

(a) Progressive Tax (b) Proportional Tax
(c) Lump sum Tax (d) Regressive Tax

46. Who is the Director of “Chak De India”?

(a) Shimit Amiro (b) Yash Chopra
(c) Shahrukh Khan (d) Ram Gopal verma

47. What is the full form of the scanning technique CAT?

(a) Complete Anatomical Trepanning (b) Computerized Automatic Therapy
(c) Computerized Axial Tomography (d)Complete Axial Transmission

48. Who got the World Food Prize?

(a) Kofi Annan (b) Man Mohan Singh
(c) Hillary Clinton (d) Bhumibol Adulyadej

49. ISO 9000 is a

(a) Quality Standard Mark (b) Space Project
(c) Trade Technique (d) Loan Security

50. What is ‘AGMARK’?

(a) Name of Brand
(b) A Marketing Research Organisation
(c) Eggs supplied by Government-run cooperative
(d) Agriculture marketing for agro products

51. The Headquarters of Indian Space Research Organisation is at

(a) Trivandrum (b) New Delhi
(c) Bangalore (d) Ahmedabad

52. “Saras” is the name of

(a) An Aircraft (b) A Tank
(c) A Missile (d) A Submarine

53. First woman Prime-Minister in the World was from

(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bhutan
(c) India (d) Nepal

54. Who was felicitated with ‘Nishan-e-Paki scan “?

(a) Shawghan Sinha (b) Maulana Azad
(c) Dilip Kumar (d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

55. Which State provided separate reservation for Muslims and Christians in the State Backward Classes List in 2007?

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Bihar (d) Kerala

56. Which of the following dances is not a classical dance?

(a) Kathakali (b) Garba
(c) Odissi (d) Manipun

57. Sulabh Intemational is an organisation which provides

(a) Health Services in Rural Areas (b) Good Sanitation at Cheap Rates
(c) Low Cost Accommodation (d) Low Cost Credit

58. Who among the following was honoured with ‘Officer of the Legion of Honour’ ‘award by French Govemment in July 2008?

(a) Dev Anand (b) Yash Chopra
(c) H.R. Chopra (d) Mrinal Sen

59. The largest gland in the human body is

(a) Liver (b) Pancreas
(c) Thyroid (d) Endocrine

60. The Railway Budget for 2007-2008 has declared the year 2007 as the year of

(a) Cleanliness (b) Passenger Comfort
(c) Staff Welfare (d) Computerization of Reservations

61. In the world of Hindi Cinema, who was affectionately called as ‘Dada Moni’?

(a) Balraj Sahni (b) Pdthviraj Kapoor
(c) Ashok Kumar (d) Utpal Dutt

62. Out standing Parliamentarian Award (2006) was presented in 2007 to

(a) P. Chidambram (b) Sarad Pawar
(c) Mani Shankar Aiyar (d) Sushma Swaraj

63. World’s longest sea bridge has taken shape in to 2007 in

(a) China (b) Japan
(c) Singapore (d) U.S.A.

64. Who among the following Indians became Citigroup’s Investment Banking head?

(a) L. N. Mittal (b) A.K. Subramaniyam
(c) Vineet Seth (d) Vikram Pandit

65. The Green Revolution in India has been identified with

(a) Dr. Man Mohan Singh (b) Dr. Montck Singh Ahluwalia
(c) Mr. Rajendra Singh ‘walerman’ (d) Dr. M.S. Swaminalhan

66. Indian Judge in the UN Law of the Sea Tribunal is

(a) Dr. P.S.Rao (b) Dr. P.C.Rao
(c) Mr. Justice Jagannath Rao (d) Mr. Justice Rajendra Babu

67. The Ozone Layer thins down as a result of a chain chemical reaction that separates from the layer

(a) Oxygen (b) Chlorine
(c) Nitrogen (d) Hydrogen

68. Joint SAARC University of eight SAARC Nations has been established in

(a) Colombo (b) Dhaka
(c) Kathmandu (d) New Delhi

69. Which country recently produced the world’s first cloned rabbit using a biological process that takes cells from a fems?

(a) U.K. (b) China
(c) U.S.A. (d) Germany

70. Which one of the following Vitamins is responsible for blood clotting?

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K

71. What is the meaning of ‘Gilt Edged Market’?

(a) Market in Government securities (b) Market of smuggled goods
(c) Market of auctioned goods (d) Market of Gold products

72. Who is the Central Chief Information Commissioner of India?

(a) Prof. Ansari (b) Mrs. Padma Subramenian
(c) Mr. Wajahat Habibullah (d) Dr. O.P. Kejariwal

73. The youngest recipient of Padma Shti so far is

(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Shobana Chandrakumar
(c) Sania Miaa (d) Billy Man Singh

74. Who is the Director of the film “Elizabeth: The Golden Age Cast”?

(a) Rama Nand Sagar (b) Ram Gopal Verma
(c) Karan Johar (d) Shekhar Kapur ,

75. The territorial waters of India extend up to?

(a) 12 Nautical Miles (b) 6 Km
(c) 10 Nautical Miles (d) 15 Nautical Miles

76. ‘Satnjhoma Express’ runs between [lie Railway Stations of

(a) New Delhi – Wagah (b) New Delhi – Lahore
(c) Amritsar – Lahore (d) New Delhi – Islamabad

77. Blue revolution refers to

(a) Forest Development (b) fishing
(c) Poultry Farming (d) Horticulture

78. Dr. A.P.1.Abdul Kalam has been appointed as Chancellor of

(a) IIM Mumbai (b) IIT Kanpur
(c) IIM Ahmedabad (d) UST Thiruvananthapuram

79. In which State “Kanya Vidyadhan Yojna” is operational?

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Haryana

80. Who emerged the fastest woman of the world at Beijing Olympics?

(a) Sheron Sumpson (b) Keaon Stewart
(c) Ann Fraser (d) Elina Basiena

81. Savannath grasslands are found in

(a) North America (b) Africa
(c) Australia (d) East Asia

82. Which State has launched the “Aarogya Sri” a health Insurance Scheme for families below poverty line?

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala

83. The first nuclear reactor of India is named

(a) Rohini (b) Vaishali
(c) Apsara (d) Kamini

84. In May 2007 Air Sahara acquired by Jet Airways is being operated as a separate airline under the name of

(a) Jet Lite (b) Jet Sahara
(c) Air Jet Line (d) Jet Sahara Lite

85. Suez Canal connects

(a) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea (b) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
(c) Baltic Sea and Red Sea (d) Baltic Sea and Black Sea

86. Government has launched E – Passport Scheme and first E – Passport was issued to

(a) Mr. Arjun Singh (b) Mrs. Sortia Gandhi
(c) Dr. ManMohan Singh (d) Mrs. Pratibha Patil

87. The Hindu outfit ‘Hindraf’ has been banned in

(a) Pakistan (b) Thailand
(c) Malaysia (d) Bangladesh

88. Which organization is headed by Indian Environmenlalisis R.K.Pachauri, a Nobel Laureate!

(a) International Environment Panel
(b) International Panel on Climate Change
(c) International Pollution Control Panel
(d) International Panel on Global Warming

89. Kandhamal, the worst affected town by sectarian violence in September- October 2008 is situated in

(a) Orissa (b) Gujarat
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Kamataka

90. World “No Tobacco Day” is observed on

(a) January 10 (b) June 1
(c) May 31 (d) March 5

SECTION – III : Elementary Mathematics (Numerical Ability)

Instructions: (Questions 91-110), From the four answers given, shade the appropriate answer In the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.

Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark (total 20 marks)

91. The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 members is Rs. 1000. What will be monthly average income of one person in the same family if
the income of one person increased by Rs. 12,000/- per yeat’?

(a) Rs. 1200/- (b) Rs. 1600/
(c) Rs. 2000/- (d) Rs. 3400/

92. A dishonest shopkeeper uses a weight of 800 gm for a kg and professes to sell his good at cost price. His profit is

(a) 20% (b) 21%
(c) 24% (d) 25%

93. By selling I I oranges for a rupee, a man loses 10% . How many oranges for a rupee should he sell to gain 10% ?

(a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 8 (d) 5

94. A person takes 3 hours to walk a certain distance and riding back. Fie could walk both ways in 5 hours. How long could it take to ride both ways.

(a) 1.5 hr (b) I hr
(c) 0.5 hr (d) 2 firs

95. Change 1/8 into percentage

(a) 12.5% (b) 15%
(c) 8% (d) 25%

96. 12.5% of 80 is equal to

(a) 8 (b) 20
(c) 10 (d) 40

97. Which number should fill the blank space to complete the series: 1,2,4,5,7,8,10,11

(a) 12 (b) 13
(c) 14 (d) 15

98. The smallest of the fractions given below

(a) 9/10 (b) 11/12
(c) 23/28 (d) 32/33

99. Three friends shared the cost of a television. If Amit, Bharat and Dinesh each paid Rs. 3000 and Rs. 1800 respectively, then Dinesh paid what percent of
the total cost?

(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 30% (d) 40%

100. The average age of 29 boys of a class is equal to 14 years. When the age of the class teacher is included the average becomes 15 years. Find the age of the class teacher.

(a) 44 years (b) 40 years
(c) 52 years (d) 66 years

101. It takes 8 people working at equal rates to finish a work in 96 days. How long will 6 workers take for the same work?

(a) 92 days (b) 128 days
(c) 111 days (d) 84 days

102. Ram’s income is 20% less than Shyam’s. How much is Shyam’s income more than Ram’s in percentage terms?

(a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) 25% (d) 15%

103. The monthly salary of A,B and C are in the ratio 2: 3: 5. If C’s Monthly salary is Rs. 1,200 more than that of a, find B’s annual salary.

(a) Rs. 2000 (b) Rs. 1000
(c) Rs. 1500 (d) Rs. 1200

104. In a town there are 94500 people. 2/9 of them are foreigners, 6400 are immigrants and the rest are natives. How many are natives?

(a) 67100 (b) 27400
(c) 77600 (d) 88100

105. Total salary of three persons A,B and C is Rs. 1,44,000. They spend 80% , 85% and 75% respectively. If their savings are in the ratio 8:9:20, find C’s salary.

(a) 48000 (b) 64000
(c) 40000 (d) 32000

106. The population of a town is 155625. For ever 1000 males there are 1075 females. If 40% of the males and 24% of the females are literate, find the
percentage of literacy in the town.

(a) 33.7 (b) 32.7
(c) 31.7 (d) 30.7

107. 10 sheep and 5 pigs were brought for Rs. 6,000. If the average price of a sheep is Rs. 450, find the average price of pig.

(a) Rs. 380 (b) Rs. 410
(c) Rs. 340 (d) Rs. 300

108. Ram weighs 25 kg more than Shyam. Their combined weight is 325 kg. How much does Shyam weigh?

(a) 150 kg (b) 200 kg
(c) 125 kg (d) 160 kg

109. Find out the wrong number in the series: 3,8,15,24,34,48,63

(a) 24 (b) 34
(c) 15 (d) 63

110. What is the location value of 7 in the figure 9872590?

(a) 72590 (b) 7
(c) 70000 (d) 7000

SECTION IV: Legal Aptitude

Instructions: (Questions 111-155), From the four options given, shade the appropriate correct option in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.

Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark (Total 45 marks)

111. Which is the oldest Code of Law in India?

(a) Naradasmriti (b) Manusmriti
(c) Vedasmnti (d) Prasarsmriti

112. Private international law is also called .

(a) Civil Law (b) Local laws
(c) Conflict of laws (d) Common law

113. A nominal sum given as a token for striking a sale is called

(a) Earnest money (b) Advance
(c) Interest (d) Solatium

114. Joint heirs to a property are called

(a) Co-heirs (b) Coparceners
(c) Successors (d) Joint owners

115. The right of a party to initiate an action and be heard before a Court of law is called

(a) Right in rem (b) Right in personzm
(c) Fundamental right (d) Locus standi

116. Indian Parliament is based on the principle of

(a) Bicameralism (b) Universal Adult Franchise
(c) Dyarchy (d) Federalism

117. The Supreme Court held that evidence can be recorded by video-confereneing in the case

(a) State of Maharashtra v. Prafull B. Desai (b) Paramjit Kaur v. State of Punjab
(c) Pappu Yadav v. State of Bihar (d) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab

118. When the master is held liable for the wrongful act of his servant, the liability is called

(a) Strict liability (b) Vicarious liability
(c) Tortous liability (d) Absolute liability

119. The act of unlawfully entering into another’s property constitutes

(a) Trespass (b) Restraint
(c) Appropriation (d) Encroachment

120. Which Parliamentary Committee in Indian system of democracy is chaired by a member of Opposition Party?

(a) Estimates Committee (b) Joint Parliamentary Committee
(c) Public Accounts Committee (d) Finance Committee

121. Supreme Court held that Preamble as a basic feature of Constitution cannot be amended in the case of

(a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(c) S.R.Bommai v. Union of India
(d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

122. In the year 2002 the Competition Act was enacted replacing

(a) Trade Marks Act (b) Copy Right Act
(c) Contract Act (d) MRTP Act

123. A right to recover time barred debt is

(a) Universal right (b) Perfect right
(c) Imperfect right (d) Fundamental right

124. The law relating to prisoners of war has been codified by

(a) Geneva Convention (b) Vienna Convention
(c) Paris Convention (d) None of the above

125. Public holidays are declared under

(a) Criminal Procedure Code (b) Civil Procedure Code
(c) Constitution of India (d) Negotiable Instruments Act

126. When a person is prosecuted for committing a criminal offence, the burden of proof is on

(a) Accused (b) Prosecution
(c) Policeon (d) Complainant
127. Offence which can be compromised between the parties is known as

(a) Non-compoundable offence (b) Cognizable offence
(c) Compoundable offence (d) Non-cognizable offence

128. Husband and wife have a right to each others company. The right is called

(a) Conjugal right (b) Human right
(c) Civil right (d) Fundamental right

129. A person ‘dying intesiatz’ mear.: he

(a) Died without legal heirs (b) Died without making a will
(c) Died without any property (d) Died without a son

130. If a witness makes a statement in Court, knowing it to be false, he commits the offence of

(a) Forgery (b) Falsehood
(c) Perjury (d) Breach of trust

131. A child born after father’s death is

(a) Posthumous (b) Heir
(c) Intestate (d) Bastard

132. A formal instrument by which one person empowers another to represent him is known as

(a) Affidavit (b) Power of attorney
(c) Will (d) Declaration

133. The temporary release of a prisoner is called

(a) Parole (b) Amnesty
(c) Discharge (d) Pardon

134. The offence of inciting disaffection, hatred or contempt against Government is

(a) Perjury (b) Forgery
(c) Sedition (d) Revolt

135. India became the member of United Nations in the Year

(a) 1956 (b) 1945 (c) 1946 (d) 1950

136. A party to the suit is called

(a) Accused (b) Plaintiff (c) Litigant (d) Complainant

137. Who heads the four members Committee appointed to study the Centre-State relations especially the changes took place since Sarkaria Commission

(a) Justice M.M.Panchi (b) Justice Nanavati
(c) Justice Bamcha (d) Justice Kuldip Singh

138. No one can be convicted twice for the same offence. This doctrine is called

(a) Burden of proof (b) Double conviction
(c) Double jeopardy (d) Corpus delicti

139. A participant in commission of crime is popularly known as

(a) Respondent (b) Under-trial
(c) Defendant (d) Accomplice

140. Which of the following is not payable to Central Government?

(a) Land revenue (b) Customs duty
(c) Income tax (d) Wealth tax

141. Where is the National Judicial Academy located’?

(a) Kolkata (b) Bhopal
(c) Delhi (d) Mumbai

142. Who have constitutional right to audience in all Indian Couns’?

(a) President (b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Attorney General (d) Solicitor General

143. Which of the following is not included in the Preamble to the Constitution?

(a) Morality (b) Justice
(c) Sovereign (d) Socialist

144. `Court of Record’ is a Court which?

(a) Maintains records (b) Preserves all its records
(c) Can punish for its contempt (d) Is competent to issue writs

145. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office only on grounds of

(a) Gross inefficiency (b) Delivering wrong judgments
(c) Senility (d) Proven misbehavior incapacity

146. Fiduciary relationship means a relationship based on

(a) Trust (b) Money
(c) Contract (d) Blood relation or incapacity

147. The Chairman of Tehelka Enquiry Commission is

(a) Justice Kripal (b) Justice S.N.Phukan
(c) Justice Saharia (d) Justice Liberhan

148. The concept of judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of

(a) U.S.S.R. (b) U.K.
(c) U.S.A. (d) Switzerland

149. Every duty enforceable by law is called

(a) Accountability (b) Obligation
(c) Burden (d) Incidence

150. The killing of a new born child by its parents is

(a) Malfeasance (b) Infanticide
(c) Abortion (d) Foeticide

151. Offence of breaking a divine idol is

(a) Salus populi (b) Crime
(c) Sacrilege (d) Blasphemy

152. A person who goes under-ground or evades the jurisdiction of the Court is known as

(a) Offender (b) Under-ground
(c) Absentee (d) Absconder

153. What is a caveat’!

(a) A warning (b) An injunction
(c) Writ (d) Certiorari

154. Muslim religious foundations are known as

(a) Din (b) Wakfs
(c) Ulema (d) Quzat

155. Beyond what distance from the coast, is the sea known as “High Sea”?

(a) 20 miles (b) 300 miles
(c) 200 km. (d) 12 miles

SECTION – V: Logical Reasoning (Questions 156 -200)

Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark (total 45 marks)

Instructions : (questions 156-165), Each question below consists of one Assertion (A) and one Reason (R). Examine them and shade the correct answers using the Code below an the OMR Answer Sheet.

Code.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

156.
A: Area along the Equator records the highest temperature throughout the year.
R: On the equator, days and nights are equal for the largest part of the year.

157.
A: Commercial fisheries have not developed in tropics.
R: The demand for marine food from low income population is low in the tropics.

158.
A: Lightning thunder end heavy rain accompany volcanic activity.
R: Volcanoes throw water vapour and charged panicles in the atmosphere.

159.
A: Soils in some pans of Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan are saline.
R: Evaporation exceeds precipitation.

160.
A: The monsoons arrive suddenly in India in June.
R: The monsoonal low pressure trough is well-developed over India.

161.
A: India built dams and reservoirs to manage water resources.
R: India had enough experience in canals.

I62.
A: The life expectancy in European countries is very high.
R: European countries have low mortality rate.

163.
A: The nomadic herders slaughter their animals for meat.
R: Animals form the chief source of food and livelihood for nomadic herders.

164.
A: Exploitation of equatorial rain forest of Amazon basin is not easy.
R: This region is very rich in several types of deadly animals and insects.

165.
A: The Sea remains free from ice from British Columbia to Bering Sea.
R: Air moving off the comparatively warm waters of North Pacific Drift gives the coastal areas of British Columbia a warmer climate.

Instructions: (questions 166-175), In each question below are given one statement and two assumptions I and II. Examine the statements and shade the correct assumption which is implicit in the statement on the OMR

Answer Sheet using the following Code.

Code:
(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either 1 or II is implicit.
(d) If neither 1 nor II is implicit.

166.
Statement: The patient’s condition would improve after operation.
Assumptions: I. The patient can be operated upon in this condition.
II. The patient cannot be operated upon in this condition

167.
Statement: Detergents should be used to clean cloths.
Assumptions: I. Detergent form more lather.
II. Detergent helps to dislodge grease and din.

168.
Statement: “As there is a great demand, every person seeking ticket of the
programme will be given only five tickets”.
Assumptions: I. The organisers are not keen on selling the tickets.
II. No one is interested in getting more than five tickets.

169.
Statement: Double your money in five months- An advertisement.
Assumptions: I. The assurance is not genuine.
II. People want their money to grow.

170.
Statement: Films have become indispensable for the entertainment of people
Assumptions: I. Films are the only media of entertainment.
II. People enjoy films.

171.
Statement: “To keep myself up-to-date, I always listen l0 9.00 p.m. news on radio”. – A candidate tells the interview board.
Assumptions: I. The candidate does not read newspaper.
II. Recent news are broadcast only on radio.

172.
Statement: Never before such a lucid book was available on the topic.
Assumptions: I. Some other books were available on this topic.
II. You can write lucid books on very few topics.

173.
Statement: In case of any difficulty about this case, you may contact our company’s lawyer.
Assumption: I. Each company has a lawyer ol its own,
II. The company’s lawyer ia thoroughly briefed about this case.

174.
Statement: “Present day education is in shambles and the country is going to the dogs”.
Assumptions: I. A good education system is essential for the well being of a nation.
II. A good education alone is sufficient for the well being of a nation.

175.
Statement: Children are influenced more by their teachers nowadays. Assumptions: I. The children consider teachers as
their models.
II. A large amount of children’s time is spent in school.

Instructions : (questions 176-180), Each question below contains a Statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the Statement. Shade the correct option on relationship on the OMR Answer Sheet.

176. Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Ram, “I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is your maternal uncle”. How is the speaker related to Ram’s father?

(a) Sister-in-law (b) Wife
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) Neither (z) nor (b)

177. Introducing a man, a woman said, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother”. How is the woman related to the man?

(a) Mother (b) Aunt
(c) Sister (d) Niece

178. Shyam said, “This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother’.’. Who is Shyam to the girl?

(a) Father (b) Grandfather
(c) Husband (d) Father-in-law

179. Pointing to a man on the stage, Sunita said, “He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband”. How is the man on the stage related to Sunita?

(a) Son (b) Husband
(c) Cousin (d) Nephew

180. Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said, “His hrothnr’s father is the only sun of my grand lather”. How is the woman related to his man?

(a) Mother (b) Aunt
(c) Sister (d) Daughter

Instructions : (questions I8L-19(I), In each question below two words are paired which have certain relationships. After the double colon (::), another word is given and shade the correct option on the OMR Answer Sheet which pairs with this word taking into account the pair already given.

181. Legislation : Enactment :: Executive : ?

(a) Minister (b) Officer
(c) Implementation (d) Leader

182. UP : Uttranchal :: Bihar : ?

(a) Jharkhand (b) Chhatisgarh
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Manipur

183. Gold : Silver:: Cotton : ?

(a) Yarn (b) Silk
(c) Fibre (d) Synthetic

184. Botany : Flora :: Zoology

(a) Fauna (b) Biology
(c) Fossils (d) Pathology

185. Cold wave: Winter:: Loo : ?

(a) Humidity (b) Frostbite
(c) Summer (d) Storm

186. King ; Royal :: Saint : ?

(a) Religious (b) Red
(c) Priesthood (d) Blue

187. Sculptor: Statue :: Poet : ?

(a) Painter (b) Singer
(c) Poem (d) Writer

188. Laugh : Happy :: Cry

(a) Sad (h) Bickering
(c) Frown (d) Complain

189, Black : Absence :: Whitc

(a) Red (b) Prtscnrc
(c) Rainbow (d) Crystal

190. Governor: President :: Chief-Minister:?

(a) Commissioner (b) Attorney General
(C) Justice (d) Prime-Minister

Instructions : (questions 191-195), Each question below contains a Statement and two Courses of Action I and dI. Assuming the statement to be true, decide which of the two suggested Coum of Action logically follows and shade or the Order Answer Sheet, using the Code given below.

Code:
(a) If only I follow. (b) If only II follow.
(c) If either I or II follow. (d) If neither I nor II follow.

191.
Statement: one of the problems facing the food processing industry is the irregular supply of raw material. The producers of raw materials are not getting a reasonable price.
Courses of Action: I. The govemment should regulate the supply of raw material to other industries also.
II. The government should announce an attractive package to ensure regular supply of raw material for food processing industry.

192.
Statement: The Officer In-charge of a Company had a hunch that some money was missing from the safe.
Course of Action: I. He should get it recounted with the help of the staff and check it with the balance sheet.
II. He should inform the police.

193.
Statement: If the retired Professors of the same Institutes are also invited to deliberate on restructuring of the organisation, their coil tributiun may be beneficial to the Institute.
Course of Action: I. Management may seek, opinion Eli the employees before calling retired Professors.
II. Management should involve experienced people for the systematic restructuring of the organisation.

194.
Statement: The sale of a particular product has gone down considerably causing great concern to the company.
Course of Action: I. The company should make a proper study of rival products in the market.
II. The price of the product should be reduced and quality improved.

195.
Statement: Mr. X, an active member of the Union, often insults his superiors in the office with his rude behaviour.
Course of Action: I. He should be transferred to some other department.
II. The matter should be referred to the Union.

Instructions: (questions 196-200), Each question below contains a Statement and two Arguments I and II. Assume the statement to be true, shade the Argument which is strong on the OMR Answer Sheet using the Code below.

Code:
(a) If only argument I is strong. (b) If only argument II is strong.
(c) If either argument I or II is strong. (d) If neither argument I nor Il strong.

196.
Statement: Should a total ban be put on trapping wild animals?
Arguments: I. Yes. Trappers are making a lot of money.
II. No. Bans on hunting and [rapping are not effective.

197.
Statement: Should school education be made free in India?
Arguments: I. Yes. This is the only way to improve the level of literacy,
II. No. It would add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.

198.
Statement: Should government jobs in rural areas have more incentives?
Arguments: I. Yes. Incentives are essential for attracting government servants there.
II. No. Rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex than big. So, why offer extra incentives!

199.
Statement: Should luxury hotels be banned in India’?
Arguments: I. Yes. They are places from where intemalional criminals operate.
II. No. Affluent foreign tourists will have no place to stay.

200.
Statement: Should the political parties be banned?
Arguments: I. Yes. It is necessary to teach a lesson to the politicians.
II. No. It will lead to an end of democracy.

CLAT 2009 Question Paper  Answers

Qs Ans Qs Ans
1 A  101 B
2 D 102 C
3 C 103 D
4 A 104 A
5 D 105 B
6 A  106 C
7 C 107 D
8 D  108 A
9 B  109 B
10 D 110 C
11 A 111 B
12 D  112 C
13 C  113 A
14 B  114 B
15 A  115 D
16 B 116 A
17 C  117 A
18 D  118 B
19 A  119 A
20 B 120 C
21 C 121 D
22 D 122 D
23 B 123 C
24 C 124 A
25 A 125 D
26 B 126 B
27 C 127 C
28 D 128 A
29 A 129 B
30 C 130 C
31 B  131 A
32 D 132 B
33 B 133 A
34 A 134 C
35 C 135 B
36 B  136 C
37 D 137 A
38 A 138 C
39 C 139 D
40 B  140 A
41 C 141 B
42 C 142 C
43 B 143 A
44 C 144 C
45 A 145 D
46 A  146 A
 47 C 147 B
48 D 148 C
 49 A 149 B
50 D  150 B
51 C 151 C
52 A 152 D
53 A 153 A
54 C 154 B
 55 B 155 C
56 B 156 B
 57 B 157 C
58 B 158 A
59 C 159 A
60 A 160 A
 61 C 161 B
62 C  162 B
63 A 163 D
64 D 164 B
65 D 165 A
66 B  166 A
67 B  167 B
68 D  168 D
69 B 169 B
70 D 170 B
71 A  171 D
72 C  172 A
73 C 173 B
74 D 174 A
75 A 175 A
76 B 176 B
77 B 177 D
78 D 178 D
79 B 179 A
 80 C 180 C
81 B 181 C
82 A 182 A
 83 C  183 B
84 A 184 A
85 A 185 C
86 D 186 A
87 C 187 C
88 B  188 A
89 A 189 B
90 C  190 D
91 A  191 B
92 D  192 A
93 A  193 B
 94 B  194 A
 95 A  195 D
96 C 196 D
97 B 197 B
98 C 198 A
99 199 B
100 A 200 D

CLAT 2009 Question Paper – Marks Distribution

Section Part Max. Marks
I – General English A 10
B 05
C 10
D 05
E 05
F 05
II – General Knowledge 50
III – Mathematics 20
IV – Logical Reasoning 45
V – Legal Reasoning 45
Total 200

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