CLAT Question Papers

CLAT 2012 Question Paper with Answers

CLAT 2012 Question Paper and Answers are given below.

CLAT 2012 Question Paper


Instructions (1 to 10): Read the given passage carefully and attempt the questions that follow.

The work which Gandhiji had taken up was not only regarding the achievement of political freedom but also the establishment of a new social order based on truth and non-violence, unity and peace, equality and universal brotherhood and maximum freedom for all. This unfinished part of his experiment was perhaps even more difficult to achieve than the achievement of political freedom. In the political struggle, the fight was against a foreign power and all one could do was either join it or wish it success and give it his/her moral support. In establishing a social order on this pattern, there was a strong possibility of a conflict arising between diverse groups and classes of our own people. Experience shows that man values his possessions even more than his life because in the former he sees the means for perpetuation and survival of his descendants even after his body is reduced to ashes. A new order cannot be established without radically changing the mind and attitude of men towards property and, at some stage or the other, the ‘haves’ have to yield place to the ‘have-nots’. We have seen, in our time, attempts to achieve a kind of egalitarian society and the picture of it after it was achieved. But this was done, by and large, through the use of physical force.

In the ultimate analysis it is difficult, if not impossible, to say that the instinct to possess has been rooted out or that it will not reappear in an even worse form under a different guise. It may even be that, like a gas kept confined within containers under great pressure, or water held back by a big dam, once the barrier breaks, the reaction will one day sweep back with a violence equal in extent and intensity to what was used to establish and maintain the outward egalitarian form. This enforced egalitarianism contains, in its bosom, the seed of its own destruction.

The root cause of class conflict is possessiveness or the acquisitive instinct. So long as the ideal that is to be achieved is one of securing the maximum material satisfaction, possessiveness is neither suppressed nor eliminated but grows on what it feeds. Nor does it cease to be possessiveness, whether it is confined to only a few or is shared by many.

If egalitarianism is to endure, it has to be based not on the possession of the maximum material goods by a few or by all but on voluntary, enlightened renunciation of those goods which cannot be shared by others or can be enjoyed only at the expense of others. This calls for substitution of material values by purely spiritual ones. The paradise of material satisfaction, which is sometimes equated with progress these days, neither spells peace nor progress. Mahatma Gandhi has shown us how the acquisitive instinct inherent in man can be transmuted by the adoption of the ideal of trusteeship by those who ‘have’ for the benefit of all those who ‘have not’ so that, instead of leading to exploitation and conflict, it would become a means and incentive for the amelioration and progress of society respectively.

1. According to the passage, egalitarianism will not survive if
(A) It is based on voluntary renunciation
(B) It is achieved by resorting to physical force
(C) Underprivileged people are not involved in its establishment.
(D) People’s outlook towards it is not radically changed.

2. According to the passage, why does man value his possessions more than his life?
(A) He has inherent desire to share his possession with others.
(B) He is endowed with the possessive instinct.
(C) Only his possession helps him earn love and respect from his descendants.
(D) Through his possessions he can preserve his name even after his death.

3. According to the passage, which was the unfinished part of Gandhi’s experiment?
(A) Educating people to avoid class conflict.
(B) Achieving total political freedom for the country
(C) Establishment of an egalitarian society
(D) Radically changing the mind and attitude of men towards truth and nonviolence.

4. Which of the following statements is ‘not true’ in the context of the passage?
(A) True egalitarianism can be achieved by giving up one’s possessions under compulsion.
(B) Man values his life more than his possessions.
(C) Possessive instinct is a natural desire of human beings
(D) In the political struggle, the fight was against alien rule.

5. According to the passage, true egalitarianism will last only if
(A) It is thrust upon people.
(B) It is based on truth and non-violence.
(C) People inculcate spiritual values instead of material values.
(D) ‘Haves’ and ‘have-nots’ live together peacefully

6. According to the passage, people ultimately overturn a social order ——-
(A) which is based on coercion and oppression.
(B) which does not satisfy their basic needs
(C) which is based upon conciliation and rapprochement.
(D) which is not congenital to the spiritual values of the people

7. According to the passage, the root cause of class conflict is
(A) The paradise of material satisfaction.
(B) Dominant inherent acquisitive instinct in man.
(C) Exploitation of the ‘have-nots’ by the ‘haves’.
(D) A Social order where the unprivileged are not a part of the establishment.

8. Which of the following statements is ‘not true’ in the context of the passage?
(A) A new order can be established by radically changing the outlook of people towards it.
(B) Adoption of the ideal of trusteeship can minimize possessive instinct.
(C) Enforced egalitarianism can be the cause of its own destruction
(D) Ideal of new order is to secure maximum material satisfaction

9. Which of the following conclusions can be deduced from the passage?
(A) A social order based on truth and non-violence alone can help the achievement of political freedom.
(B) After establishing the social order of Gandhiji’s pattern, the possibility of a conflict between different classes of society will hardly exist.
(C) It is difficult to change the mind and attitude of men towards property.
(D) In an egalitarian society, material satisfaction can be enjoyed only at the expense of others.

10. According to the passage, what does “adoption of the ideal of trusteeship” mean?
(A) Equating peace and progress with material satisfaction.
(B) Adoption of the ideal by the ‘haves’ for the benefit of ‘have-nots’.
(C) Voluntary enlightened remuneration of the possessive instinct by the privileged class.
(D) Substitution of spiritual values by material ones by those who live in the paradise of material satisfaction.

Instructions (11 to 15): Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given.

11. Lethargy
(A) Serenity (B) listlessness (C) impassivity (D) laxity

12. Emaciated
(A) tall (B) languid (C) very thin (D) wise

13. Latent
(A) concealed (B) apparent (C) lethargic (D) prompt

14. Sporadic
(A) epidemic (B) whirling (C) occasional (D) stagnant

15. Compendium
(A) summary (B) index (C) reference (D) collection

Instructions (16 to 25): Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.

16. Give an example pertinent ______________ the case.
(A) with (B) on (C) for (D) to

17. My voice reverberated _____________ the walls of the castle.
(A) with (B) from (C) in (D) on

18. The reward was not commensurate _________ the work done by us.
(A) for (B) on (C) with (D) order

19. Our tragic experience in the recent past provides an index _______ the state of lawlessness in this region.
(A) of (B) in (C) at (D) by

20. Your conduct smacks ___________recklessness.
(A) of (B) with (C) from (D) in

21. A good judge never gropes ____________the conclusion.
(A) to (B) at (C) on (D) for

22. Nobody in our group is a genius _________winning friends and in convincing people.
(A) for (B) in (C) of (D) at

23. If you are averse _________recommending my name, you should not hesitate to admit it.
(A) about (B) for (C) to (D) against

24. Religious leaders should not delve ________ politics.
(A) in (B) with (C) at (D) into

25. What you say has hardly any bearing ________ the lives of tribals.
(A) about (B) for (C) on (D) with

Instruction (26 to 30): Select the correct meaning of the italicized idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.

26. He burnt his fingers by interfering in his neighbor’s affair.
(A) got himself into trouble (B) burnt himself
(C) got himself insulted (D) got rebuked

27. Mr. Gupta, who is one of the trustees of a big charity, is suspected of feathering his own nest.
(A) being lazy in doing his work (B) being too generous
(C) neglecting his job (D) making money unfairly

28. Mrs. Hashmi has been in the blues for the last several weeks.
(A) abroad (B) unwell (C) depressed (D) penniless

29. For the first week, the apprentice felt like a fish out of water.
(A) frustrated (B) homeless (C) disappointed (D) uncomfortable

30. His friends failed to see why he should ride the high horse just because he had won an election.
(A) become abnormal (B) appear arrogant
(C) indulge in dreams (D) hate others

Instructions (31 to 35): Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in correct order. Arrange the middle sentences in the correct sequence.

i. On one hand we are proud of being Indians,
ii. on the other hand we behave as if we were still at the dawn of our civilization
iii. murders of our own brothers and sisters is not the way to please Ram or Rahim
iv. the citizens of the land where Buddha and Gandhi taught
v. the principles of love and non-violence,
vi. nor does it fetch us any prosperity.
(A) ii, iii, iv, v (B) iii, iv, v, ii
(C) iv, v, iii, ii (D) iv, v, ii, iii

i. On the basis of experiments with rats
ii. health experts here say that
iii. exercise more and consume vitamins,
iv. they will live up to 100 years or more
v. if humans eat less,
vi. and be vigorous in their eighties and nineties.
(A) ii, iii, v, iv (B) ii, v, iii, iv
(C) ii, v, iv, iii (D) v, ii, iii, iv

i. The release of atomic energy is the greatest achievement which science has yet attained
ii. but the first invention to which their discoveries were applied was a bomb
iii. the atom was split by physicists whose minds were set on the search for knowledge
iv. it was more deadly than any other weapon invented so far
v. it is with dread that scientists regard the first use to which their greatest discovery was put
vi. however, they are gratified by the numerous applications of atomic energy for peaceful and constructive population.
(A) ii, iii, iv, v (B) v, iii, ii, iv
(C) iii, ii, iv, v (D) iv, v, iii, ii

i. The problem of food is intimately connected with population
ii. wages will seldom rise in proportion to the rising prices
iii. the market is governed by demand and supply
iv. without enough food, such people lack health, strength of efficiency
v. if too many people demand goods to go round, prices will rise and poor classes will starve
vi. they fall an easy prey to all sorts of diseases.
(A) iii, v, ii, iv (B) ii, iii, iv, v
(C) iv, ii, v, iii (D) v, iii, iv, ii

i. India’s message has always been one of love and peace.
ii. our Buddha was the light of Asia
iii. it has been a source of light and wisdom to the rest of the world
iv. Ashoka, moved by the horrors of Kalinga War, adopted the message of nonviolence
v. the greatest apostle of non-violence in recent years was Mahatma Gandhi
vi. he shook the foundation of the British rule in India through non-violence.
(A) ii, v, iii, iv (B) iv, ii, iii, v
(C) v, iv, iii, ii (D) iii, ii, iv, v

Instructions (36 to 40): Given below are a few commonly used foreign language phrases, select the correct answer from the four options given below.

36. Mala fide
(A) generous (B) bad intention
(C) trustworthy (D) genuine

37. Tabula rasa
(A) clean slate (B) agitated
(C) deprived (D) creative

38. Carte blanche
(A) slavery (B) complete discretion
(C) anarchy (D) dependent

39. De jure
(A) illegal (B) heir
(C) concerning law (D) forbidden

40. Raison d’etre
(A) logical conclusion (B) reason for existence
(C) free choice (D) dubious argument


41. Who said that, ‘Man is a social animal’?
(A) Socrates (B) Aristotle (C) Kahn (D)Plato

42. World Computer Literacy day is celebrated on
(A) November 14 (B) November 3 (C) December 2 (D) July 5

43. Whose teaching inspired the French Revolution?
(A) Rousseau (B) Locke (C) Hegel (D) Wagner

44. The II Africa-India Summit was held in May 2011 in
(A) New Delhi (B)Lagos (C)Nairobi (D) Addis Ababa

45. The famous Akshardham temple is situated in the city of
(A) Jamnagar (B) Gandhinagar (C)Jammu (D) Madurai

46. Who out of the following was the recipient of Dhyan Chand Award in 2011?
(A) Satish Pillai (B) Hukam Singh (C)Shabbir Ali (D) Mukh Bain Singh

47. Name the annual fair of Rajasthan that is famous for its camel trading event.
(A) Maru Mela (B) Pushkar Mela (C)Suraj Kund Mela (D) Sonepur Mela

48. The 38th G-8 summit will be held in 2012 in
(A) USA (B)UK (C) Germany (D) Canada

49. Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for literature in 2011?
(A) Paul Lauterbur (B) Bill Clinton (C) Tomas Transtromer (D) Shirin Ebadi

50. Who was awarded the UNESCO King Sejong Literacy Prize in 2011?
(A) Nelson Mandela (B) National Literacy Service, Burundi
(C) Medha Patkar (D) National Literacy Mission, India

51. December 10 is observed as
(A) World Health Day (B) U. N. Day
(C) Red Cross Day (D) Human Rights Day

52. Which is the largest gland in human body?
(A) Pancreas (B) Liver (C) Thyroid (D)Pituitary

53. The book titled ‘The Google Story’ has been authored by
(A) David A. Vice (B) Shobha Dey (C) Fredrick Forsyth (D)Vikram Seth

54. Which strait separates Europe from Africa
(A) Mallaica (B) Gibralter (C) Berring (D) Palk

55. Taiwan was earlier known as
(A) Fuchow (B)Marshall Island (C)Formosa (D) Macau

56. Identify the Indian Tennis player who has turned Hollywood filmmaker?
(A) Vijay Amritraj (B) Mahesh Bhupathi
(C) Leander Paes (D) Ashok Amritraj

57. Where will the next Olympic Games be held in 2012?
(A) Tokyo (B)Berlin (C) London (D)Toronto

58. Which of the following teams has won the Santosh Trophy Football Championship in 2011?
(A) Punjab (B)West Bengal (C) Goa (D) Railways

59. Excess of money supply as compared to supply of goods results in
(A) Depression (B) Deflation (C) Trade deficit (D)Inflation

60. The largest living flightless bird is
(A) Emu (B)Kiwi (C)Ostrich (D)Penguin

61. Which of the following oceans has the shape of the English letter ‘S’?
(A) Atlantic (B)Pacific (C)Indian (D)Arctic

62. Which is the longest shipping canal in the world?
(A) Panama Canal (B) Suez Canal
(C) White Sea-Baltic Canal (D) Kiel Canal

63. Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh was a national of
(A) Britain (B)Portugal (C)France (D)Netherlands

64. India became a member of UNO in
(A) 1945 (B)1947 (C)1950 (D) 1952

65. To which country does India export the largest quantity of iron ore?
(A) USA (B)Japan (C) Egypt (D) Germany

66. The longest highway in India runs from
(A) Kolkata to Jammu (B) Shillong to Amritsar
(C) Ambala to Nagercoil (D) Varanasi to Kanyakumari

67. The longest irrigation canal in India is called
(A) Upper Bari Doab Canal (B) Indira Gandhi Canal
(C) Sirhind Canal (D)Yamuna Canal

68. Leukemia is a disease related to
(A) Kidney (B)Throat (C) Blood (D)Eyes

69. In which city was Osama Bin Laden killed in May 2011?
(A) Islamabad (B) Abbottabad (C)Faisalabad (D)Peshawar

70. The XI Five Year Plan envisaged the highest growth in the sector of
(A) Industry (B) Agriculture (C) Services (D)Manufacturing

71. Light year is a unit of
(A) Distance (B) Time (C) Sound (D) Light intensity

72. The IV summit of BRICS was held in New Delhi on
(A) 11th January 2012 (B)1st April 2012
(C) 29th March 2012 (D)28th February 2012

73. An indigenous nuclear submarine still under construction has been named as
(A) Chakra (B) Sudarshan (C) Arihant (D) Ghaatak

74. Government of India has launched a publicity campaign for census 2011 in association with which of the following UN organization?
(A) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
(B) World Health Organization (WHO)
(C) United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF)
(D) United Nations Population Fund (UNPF)

75. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) completed how many years of operation in 2011?
(A) 3 years (B) 4 years (C) 5 years (D) 6 years

76. The first ever formula one race in India was held in
(A) Greater Noida (B) New Delhi (C) Faridabad (D) Pune

77. Name the actor who has been honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 2012.
(A) Naseerudin Shah (B) Kamal Hasan
(C) Soumitra Chatterjee (D) Amol Paleker

78. In which city was the Arab Summit held in the last week of March 2012?
(A) Bagdad (B) Cairo (C) Beirut (D) Riyadh

79. The two Supreme Court Judges who delivered the famous 2-G judgment in February 2012 were
(A) Justice G.S. Singhvi and Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra
(B) Justice G.S. Singhvi and Justice A.K. Ganguly
(C) Justice S.H. Kapadia and Justice A.K. Ganguly
(D) Justice Chandramauli Kumar Prasad and Justice H.L. Gokhale

80. Who presides over the joint sitting of both houses of Parliament?
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B)President
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (D) Prime Minister

81. Christian Lagarde heads the
(A) World Bank (B) UNICEF (C )International Monetary Fund (D)WHO

82. The seat of International Criminal Court is at
(A) The Hague (B)Geneva (C) Washington (D) Tokyo

83. First Indian to ski to North Pole is
(A) Arun Nayyar (B) Ajeet Bajaj (C)Sq. Ldr. Sanjay Thapar (D)Neal Paramjeet

84. First woman Director General of Police in India was
(A) Kanchan Choudhary (B) Kavitha Choudhary
(C) Kiran Bedi (D) Aswathy Tonge

85. Which countries co-hosted the One-day cricket World Cup in 2011?
(A) India, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka
(B) India, Bangladesh and Pakistan
(C) India, Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(D) India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh and Pakistan

86. Priyanka Chopra has been named National Ambassador of
(A) WHO (B) UNICEF (C)UNESCO (D)International Red Cross Society

87. Who is leading in the Republican primaries to contest the American Presidential election scheduled in November 2012?
(A) Sara Palin (B) Newt Gingrich (C) Rick Santorum (D) Mitt Romney

88. Supreme Court recently declared ‘Salva Judum’ unconstitutional. What is ‘Salva Judam’?
(A) A terrorist outfit
(B) An armed civilian group formed to combat Maoists
(C) A money-chain business
(D) Custom of killing a girl for inter-caste marriage in the name of honour

89. As per the Indian Union Budget of 2012-13, the income-tax exemption limit for persons below 65 years of age is
(A) Rs. 175000 (B) Rs. 200000 (C) Rs. 250000 (D) Rs.190000

90. The U. N. Climate Change Conference 2011 was held in
(A) New Delhi (B) Doha (C)Durban (D)Geneva


91. P sells a table to Q at a profit of 10% and Q sells it to R at a profit of 12%. If R pays Rs. 246.40 for it, then how much had P paid for it?
(A) 200.00 (B) 300.00 (C) 248.00 (D) 346.00

92. The least value of x, for which the expression x2+x+17 will not give a prime number, is
(A) 7 (B) 11 (C)13 (D)17

93. A train 300 meters long is running at a speed of 25 meters per second, it will cross a bridge 200 meters long in
(A) 5 seconds (B) 10 seconds (C) 20 seconds (D)25 seconds

94. If 0.06% of a number is 84, then 30% of that number is
(A) 25.2 (B) 420 (C) 42000 (D)2520

95. A sum was divided among P, Q & R. R got double than P who got double than Q. If the difference between the shares of Q and R is Rs. 3675.00, then the sum in rupees is
(A) 4900 (B) 8575 (C)11025 (D) 7350

96. If the ratio of the areas of two squares is 25:36, then the ratio of their perimeters is
(A) 5:6 (B) 25:36 (C) 6:5 (D) 36:25

97. The denominator of a fraction is greater than its numerator by 11. If 8 is added to both its numerator and denominator, then it becomes ¾. The fraction is
(A) 25/26 (B) 35/26 (C) 26/35 (D)25/36

98. If the value of 1/n^2 + 1/x^2, where x= 2+√3 and y = 2-√3, is
(A) 12 (B)16 (C)14 (D)10

99. If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, we obtain 27 cm. The radius of the sphere is
(A) 9 cm. (B ) 81 cm. (C) 27 cm. (D) 24 cm.

100. One-third of one fourth of a number is 12. Then the number is
(A) 96 (B) 144 (C) 108 (D) 36

101. In the number series 4,10,23,50,104,216,439 the wrong number is
(A) 10 (B) 23 (C) 104 (D)50

102. The price of 2 trousers and 4 shirts is Rs. 1,600. With the same amount one can buy 1 trouser and 6 shirts. If one wants to buy 12 shirts, he has to pay
(A) Rs. 2400 (B) Rs. 4800 (C) Rs. 1200 (D) Rs. 3700

103. If x=(3/2)2 (2/3)-4, then the value of x-2 is
(A) (2/3)12
(B) (3/2)12
(C) (6/5)-12
(D) (5/6)-12

104. A dealer buys an article for Rs. 380.00. What price should he mark so that after allowing a discount of 5% he still makes a profit of 25% on the article?
(A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs. 475 (C)Rs. 95 (D)Rs. 465

105. In a factory, the production of scooters rose to 48400 from 40000 in 2 years. The rate of growth per annum is
(A) 20% (B) 10% (C)30% (D)8%

106. If x + 1/x = 3, then x2 + 1/x2 will be
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 27 (D)7

107. When 16×4+12×3-10×2+8x+20 is divided by 4x-3, the quotient and the remainder are, respectively
(A) 4x3 + 6x2 + 2x and 61/2
(B) 4x3 + 6x2 + 7/2 and 51/2
(C) 6x2 + 2x + 2/7 and 61/2
(D) 4x3 + 6x2 + 2x + 7/2 and 61/2

108. The sum of two numbers is 2490. If 6.5% of one number is equal to 8.5% of the other, the numbers are
(A) 1411 and 1079 (B) 1412 and 1080
(C) 1141 and 1709 (D) 1214 and 1800

109. 120 men had food provision for 200 days. After 5 days, 30 men died of an epidemic. The food will last for further
(A) 280 days (B) 260 days (C)290 days (D) 252 days

110. Out of the total income, X spends 20% on house rent and 70% of the remaining amount on household expenditure. If X saves Rs. 1800, the total income is
(A) Rs. 8000 (B) Rs. 9500 (C) Rs. 7500 (D) Rs. 8500


Instructions (111 to 116): Given below are some statements followed by two arguments. Read carefully and decide which of the arguments strongly support the statement.

111. Statement: Should the pay scale and conditions of service of government
employees be made applicable to private sector employees?
(i) No, this will develop inertia, inefficiency and would adversely affect spirit of competition.
(ii) Yes, this will enhance dedication to work and institutional loyalty
(A) Argument (i) is strong. (B) Argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are strong. (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.

112. Statement: Should a strong institution of ombudsman be created in India?
(i) Yes, this will bring transparency and accountability in the administration
(ii) No, this will develop lack of initiative and flexibility in the administration.
(A) Argument (i) is strong. (B) Argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are strong. (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.

113. Statement: Should internal assessment in colleges and universities be abolished?
(i) Yes, this will eliminate the possibility of favoritism.
(ii) No, teaching faculty will lose control over the students and this would adversely affect their academic growth.
(A) Argument (i) is strong. (B) Argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are strong. (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.

114. Statement: Should military training be made compulsory for all college and university students?
(i) Yes, this will develop in them a sense of punctuality and discipline
(ii) No, military training should be given only to those students who are physically fit.
(A) Argument (i) is strong. (B) Argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are strong. (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.

115. Statement: Should students’ union in colleges and universities be abolished? Arguments:
(i) Yes, it detracts students from academic and career development.
(ii) No, all great leaders have been students’ union leaders.
(A) Argument (i) is strong. (B)Argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are strong. (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.

116. Statement: Should the age of marriage be raised to 25 years for boys and 21 for girls?
(i) No, it is difficult to change a social practice in Indian conditions.
(ii) Yes, by that age people develop a sense of responsibility and also complete their education.
(A) Argument (i) is strong. (B) Argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are strong. (D)Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.

Instructions (117 to 120): Each question contains six statements followed by four sets of combination of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

117. Statements:
(i) X and Y are siblings.
(ii) X and Y do not quarrel.
(iii) Siblings are known to quarrel often.
(iv) X and Y quarrel often.
(v) All those who quarrel are siblings.
(vi) X and Y cannot be siblings.
(A) ii, iv,v (B) i, iv, vi (C) i, iii, iv (D) i, ii, v

118. Statements:
(i) All mangoes are fruits.
(ii) All mangoes are green.
(iii) All mangoes are oval shaped.
(iv) All fruits are sweet.
(v) All mangoes are sweet.
(vi) All fruits are expensive.
(A) i, ii, iii (B) i, iv, v (C) ii, iii, iv (D) iv, v, vi

119. Statements:
(i) All frogs are amphibians.
(ii) All amphibians are not frogs.
(iii) All amphibians are cold blooded.
(iv) All frogs lay eggs.
(v) All amphibians lay eggs.
(vi) Frogs are cold blooded.
(A) i, iii, vi (B) i, iv, v (C) i, ii, v (D)ii, v, iv

120. Statements:
(i) Some men are of short- height.
(ii) Short-heighted men are intelligent.
(iii) Sudhir is a man.
(iv) Sudhir is of short-height.
(v) Sudhir is intelligent.
(vi) All men are intelligent.
(A) i, ii, vi (B) iii, iv, ii (C) ii, iv, v (D) ii, iv, vi

Instructions (121 to 123): Of the four alternatives given in each of the following questions, find the one which is different from the rest.

(A) Fast-Slow (B) Bright-Dark (C) Day-Night (D) Valley-Depth

(A ) Body-Hand (B) Foot-Ankle (C) Eye-Ear (D) Wrist-Finger

(A) Snake-Frog (B) Goat-Hen (C) Dog-Cat (D) Tiger-Deer

Instructions (124-126): Each question below has two statements followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to accept the given statements to be true, even if they appear to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements:

124. Statement One: All girls are students.
Statement Two: All doctors are students.
I. All girls are students.
II. Some students are girls.
III. Some students are doctors.
IV. All doctors are girls.
(A) Only I follows.
(B) Only I and II follows.
(C) Only II and IV follow.
(D) Only I and II and III follows.

125. Statement One: All researchers are sociologists
Statement Two: Some researchers are professors.
I. All researchers are professors.
II. Some researchers are professors.
III. Some professors are sociologists.
IV. Some sociologists are researchers.
(A) Only III and II follow.
(B) Only II and IV follow.
(C) Only III follows.
(D) None follows.

126. Statement One: Some democracies are dictatorship.
Statement Two: No dictatorship is a monarchy.
I. No democracy is a monarchy.
II. No dictatorship is a democracy.
III. Some democracies are monarchy.
IV. Some dictatorships are democracies.
(A) None follows
(B) Only IV follows.
(C) II and III follow.
(D) I and IV follow.

Instructions (127 to 129): The following questions comprise of one or more statements. Answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Accept the factual assumptions required by the question, even if you believe that the statement is false.

127. Statements:
I. Cheese is bad for people with high-cholesterol.
II. Sumeet does not eat cheese.
Assuming that (i) and (ii) are true, which of the following statement follows?
(A) Sumeet has high-cholesterol.
(B) Cheese is bad for Sumeet.
(C) People with high-Cholesterol do not eat cheese.
(D) None of the above.

128. Statement:

I. Democrats are secularists.

Which of the following statements, if true, would show that the above statement is false?

(A) My father is a secularist but he is not a democrat.
(B) My father is a democrat but he is not secularist.
(C) My father is a democrat and he is secularist.
(D) My father is neither a democrat nor a secularist. 129. Statement:

“Where there is a cloud, there is a rain.” Which of the following statements, if true, would show that the above statement is false?

(A) Sometimes there is cloud, but there is no rain.
(B) Sometimes there is rain, but there is no cloud.
(C) There is no rain where there is no cloud.
(D) None of the above.

Instructions (130 to 132): Read the following information carefully and then answer the questions.

Four friends W, X, Y and Z are students of Class 10th. W and X are good in Hindi but poor in English. W and Y are good in Science but poor in Mathematics. Y and Z are good in English but poor in Social Studies. Z and X are good in Mathematics as well as in Science.

130. Who amongst the following friends is not good in Mathematics but good in Hindi?
(A) W (B)Y (C) X (D) Z

131. Which of the following pairs of friends are good, both in English and Science?
(A) W and Y (B)W and Z (C) Y and Z (D)Z and X

132. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
(A) Y and Z are good in English as well as in Hindi
(B) All four friends are good in Science
(C) W is good in Social Studies, Hindi and Science
(D) Y is not good in Mathematics, Hindi and Social Studies

Instructions (133 to 135): Select the statement which logically follows the two given statements.

133. Statements:
I No athletes are vegetarians.
II All players are athletes.
III Therefore ———————–
(A) no players are vegetarians (B) all players are vegetarian
(C) some players are vegetarian (D) all vegetarians are players

134. Statements :
I All persons who have done any creative work can be responsible critics
II Z has not done any creative work
III Therefore ————————–
(A) Z can be a responsible critic (B) Z cannot be a responsible critic
(C) Z can become a responsible critic (D) Z cannot become a responsible critic

135. Statement:
I One who has squared a circle is not a mathematician
II Therefore ———————–
(A) No one who has squared a circle is a mathematician
(B) All non-mathematicians have squared a circle
(C) Some mathematicians have squared a circle
(D) All mathematicians square a circle

136. Statement: The Supreme Court of India is encouraging Public Interest Litigation
I To increase the reach of justice to the disadvantaged sections of society
II To quicken the pace of Justice
Identify the correct reason for the aforementioned statement.
(A) Both I and II are correct reasons of the statement
(B) I is the correct reason of the statement
(C) Both I and II are not correct reasons of the statement
(D) II is the correct reason of the statement

137. Yoga has become a very popular exercise, but it may not be for everyone. If you are interested in high energy and fast workouts, yoga may not be the best choice.
Therefore, evaluate your fitness requirement before joining yoga classes.
This paragraph best supports the statement that:
(A) Yoga is more popular than high energy exercise
(B) Yoga is changing the concept of fitness in various ways
(C) Before opting for Yoga, assess your fitness requirements
(D) Yoga is a holistic fitness regime

138. Statistics allows us to understand the reality. It indicates developmental directions. Statistics is good for exposing reality, but it can also be manipulated to perpetuate untruth and misunderstanding. Data has power to mislead people.
This paragraph best supports the statement that:
(A) Words are more truthful than numbers
(B) Study of statistics is more important than any other discipline
(C) Numbers never lie
(D) Numbers can be used to mislead people.

139. Technology has developed out of stone tools which were used in ancient times. At first, development of new technology was slow, but after neo-liberal economic policy was adopted there has been a tremendous growth in technology sector.
This paragraph best supports the statement that:
(A) Stone tools were not really technology
(B) Stone tools were in use in Ancient India
(C) Today new technologies are developing at a fast pace
(D) New technology has nothing in common with the stone tools

Instructions (140 to 144): Given below is a pair of events I and II. You have to decide their nature of relationship. Assume that the given information is correct and final.

I Prices of toys in the market have gone down
II Government has reduced import duty on toys.
(A) I is the main cause and II is the main effect
(B) I is effect but II is not the main cause
(C) II is the main cause and I is the main effect
(D) II is an effect but I is not the main cause.

I Inflation rate in India has come down
II Reserve Bank of India has increased interest rate.
(A) I is the main cause and II is the main effect
(B) I is effect but II is not the main cause
(C) II is the main cause and I is the main effect
(D) II is an effect but I is not the main cause

I More and more students are opting for legal education
II Bar Council of India has introduced Bar Examination
(A) I is the main cause and II is the main effect
(B) I is effect but II is not the main cause
(C) II is the main cause and I is the main effect
(D) II is an effect but I is not the main cause

I Sea level is steadily rising
II Global Warming is a serious problem which the world is facing
(A) I is the main cause and II is the main effect
(B) I is effect but II is not the main cause
(C) II is the main cause and I is the main effect
(D) II is an effect but I is not the main cause

I Financial Institutions are largely unregulated
II Today, world is passing through a serious phase of economic crisis
(A) I is the main cause and II is the main effect
(B) I is effect but II is not the main cause
(C) II is the main cause and I is the main effect
(D) II is an effect but I is not the main cause

145. An argument is given below, on the basis of that argument; find out the parallel argument from the given list of subsequent arguments
Argument: Himalayan Sparrows are disappearing. This bird is an Indian bird; therefore, Indian birds are disappearing.
Subsequent Arguments:
(A) Industrialists pay most of the taxes. ‘Z’ is a wealthy man therefore ‘Z’ must pay most taxes
(B) A pineapple is a fruit, a mango is a fruit therefore pineapple is a mango
(C) Snow tigers are an endangered species; all endangered species must be protected; therefore snow-tiger must be protected
(D) John is his father’s favorite son, and John knows this must be true because his father told him this; and no father would lie to his favorite son

Instructions (146 to 149): Each question below is followed by arguments. Choose the most appropriate choice from the options given

146. Question: Should Judicial Activism be discouraged?
Argument I: No, it would lead to executive dictatorship
Argument II: Yes, Judiciary should stay in the constitutional limits
(A) Argument I is strong (B) Argument II is strong
(C) Both the arguments are strong (D) Both the arguments are weak

147. Question: Should the Judiciary be independent of Executive and Legislature?
Argument I: Yes, this is necessary to ensure impartiality in the administration of Justice
Argument II: No, it will develop inertia in Executive and Legislature
(A) Argument I is strong (B) Argument II is strong
(C) Both the arguments are strong (D) Both the arguments are weak

148. Question: Should E-Governance be introduced at every level of public administration?
Argument I: Yes, it will reduce corruption
Argument II: No, it will lead to unemployment
(A)Argument I is strong (B) Argument II is strong
(C) Both the arguments are strong (D) Both the arguments are weak

149. Question: Should there be a world Government?
Argument I: Yes, it will eliminate inter-state conflicts
Argument II: No, Rich and Powerful countries will dominate it
(A) Argument I is strong (B) Argument II is strong
(C)Both the arguments are strong (D) Both the arguments are weak

150. “Some philosophers believe that a concept which cannot be verified can still be valid because of its inner logic which ennobles it.”
In the light of the above statement, decide the status of the statement given below.
Statement: “Every person has certain inherent and inalienable rights which must be protected by Rule of Law.”
(A) True (B) False (C) Difficult to determine (D) Both True and False


151. Principle: Only Parliament or State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on their own. No law made by the State can take away a person’s fundamental right.
Facts: Parliament enacted a law, which according to a group of lawyers is violating the fundamental rights of traders. A group of lawyers files a writ petition
challenging the Constitutional validity of the statute seeking relief to quash the statute and further direct Parliament to enact a new law.
(A) No writ would lie against Parliament, as the court has no authority to direct Parliament to enact or re-enact a law
(B) The court can quash existing law if it violates fundamental rights and can direct Parliament to make a new law
(C) The court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental rights but cannot direct Parliament to make a new law.
(D) None of these

152. Principle: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have made a proposal.
Fact: “Ramanuj telegraphed to Shyam Sunder, writing: “Will you sell me your Rolls Royce CAR? Telegram the lowest cash price.” Shyam Sunder also replied by telegram: “Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 lakh.” Ramanuj immediately sent his consent through telegram stating: “I agree to buy the CAR for Rs. 20 lakh asked by you.” Shyam Sunder refused to sell the car.
(A) He cannot refuse to sell the CAR because the contract has already been made.
(B) He can refuse to sell the CAR because it was only invitation to offer and not the real offer
(C) It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent
(D) None of these

153. Principle: Every person, who is of the age of majority, is competent to contract according to the law to which he is subject.
Facts: A minor mortgaged his house in favour of Thakur Das, a money lender, to secure a loan of Rs. 20000. A part of this, i.e. Rs. 10500 was actually advanced to him. While considering the proposed advance, the attorney who was acting for the money lender, received information that the plaintiff was still a minor. Subsequently the minor commenced an action stating that he was underage when he executed the mortgage and the same should, therefore, be cancelled. He prayed for setting aside the mortgage. The mortgagee money lender prayed for the refund of Rs. 10500 from the minor.
(A) As a minor’s contract is void, any money advanced to a minor can be recovered.
(B) A minor’s contract is void ab initio, any money advanced to a minor cannot be recovered.
(C) A minor’s contract is voidable; any money advanced to a minor can be recovered
(D) Advanced money can be recovered because minor has given wrong information about his age.

154. Principle: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.
Facts: Mr. X who is usually of sound state of mind, but occasionally of unsound state of mind, enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he was of unsound state of mind.
Mr. Y having come to know about this fact afterwards, wants to file a suit against Mr. X
(A) Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound state of mind when he entered into contract.
(B) Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound state of mind at the time of contract.
(C) Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on Mr. X to prove that he was of sound state of mind at the time of contract
(D) None of these

155. Principle:
(1). The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
(2). The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth or any of them.
Facts: The Government of Rajasthan, passed an order providing for reservations for the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes and Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (including Muslims), and Women, in all institutions of higher education, including private educational institutions, both aided as well as unaided, in the following manner: Scheduled Caste- 15%; Scheduled Tribe- 7.5%, Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (including Muslims) – 27%
I. The reservation policy of the government is violative of the principle of equality envisaged in the Constitution
II. The reservation policy is unconstitutional because it is based on ‘caste’ which is a prohibited marker
III. Reservation does not violate equality clause as it entails “like should be treated like and unlike should be treated differently.”
IV. Reservation does not violate equality clause as the Constitution itself enables the State to make special provision for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
(A) I is correct (B) I and II are both correct answers
(C) III is correct answer (D) III and IV both are correct answers

156. Principle: Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to a person or property.
Facts: Mr. Sharman, the Captain of a steam vessel, suddenly and without any fault or negligence on his part, finds himself in such a position that, before he can stop his vessel, he must inevitably run down a boat B, with twenty or thirty passengers on board, unless he changes the course of his vessel, and that, by changing his
course, he must incur the risk of running down a boat C with only two passengers on board and which he may possibly clear.
(A) Sharman has committed no offence because this was done out of necessity
(B) Sharman can be held responsible for the act of criminal negligence
(C) Sharman can be held responsible for culpable homicide
(D) This is a clear case of accident so Sharman cannot be held responsible

157. Principle: Willful rash driving is an offense.
Facts: Mr. Tiwari was driving his car after drinking alcohol. Police books him for willful negligent driving. Is the act of the police lawful?
(A) No, because Mr. Tiwari was not driving rashly; he was drunk while driving.
(B) No, this is not a negligent act.
(C) Yes, because Mr. Tiwari was driving rashly.
(D) Yes, because the police has the power to arrest a person driving rashly.

158. Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property with an intention to take it, is said to commit theft.
Facts: Y cuts down a tree on Z’s ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking it out of Z’s possession without Z’s consent. Y could not take away the tree.
(A) Y can be prosecuted for theft
(B) Y cannot be prosecuted for theft
(C) Y can be prosecuted for attempt to theft
(D) Y has neither committed theft nor attempted to commit theft

159. Principle: Injuria Sine Damnum i.e. Injury (violation of legal right) without damage
Facts: X, who was the returning officer at a polling booth in Amethi, wrongly refused to register a duly tendered vote of Y in the recent UP elections, even though Y was an eligible voter. The candidate in whose favour Y wanted to vote, was declared elected.
Give the appropriate answer-
(A) Y can sue X on the ground that he was denied the right to cast vote, which is a fundamental right.
(B) Y can sue X on the ground that he was denied the right to cast vote, which is a legal right
(C) Y cannot sue X because there is no injury or damage caused to Y
(D) Y cannot sue X because the candidate in whose favor he wanted to vote was declared elected.

160. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsound state of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or something that he is doing is either wrong or contrary to law.
Fact: X takes his son Y who is three years old, for bathing to the well. He throws his son inside the well so that the son can have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also jumps into the well to take bath and get his son out of the well. Both were rescued by the villagers but his son was found dead.
(A) X has committed culpable homicide amounting to murder
(B) X has committed murder
(C) X has done no offence as he can plead the defense of unsound state of mind
(D) X’s family should be held responsible for allowing him to take the child to the well

161. Principle: Ignorance of Fact is excused but ignorance of law is no excuse
Fact: X was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane landed at the Airport of Bombay on 28 Nov. 1962 it was found on searching that X carried 34 kg of Gold Bars on his person and that he had not declared it in the ‘Manifest for Transit’. On 26th Nov. 1962 the Government of India had issued a notification modifying its earlier exemption, making it mandatory now that the gold must be declared in the “Manifest” of the aircraft.
(A) X cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification issued two days ago
(B) X cannot be prosecuted because ignorance of fact is excusable
(C) X can be prosecuted because ignorance of law is not excusable
(D) X’s liability would depend on the discretion of the court

162. Principle: Proposal (communication) + Acceptance (communication) + Consideration = Contract. The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
Facts: X’s nephew absconded from home. He sent his servant in search of the boy.
After the servant had left, X by handbills offered to pay Rs. 501 to anybody finding  his nephew. The servant came to know of this offer only after he had already traced the missing child. He, therefore, brought an action to recover the reward.
(A) His action would fail because he was not aware of the offer
(B) His action would not fail because it was a general offer
(C) The fact that he was not aware of the offer does not make any difference and hence it was a valid contract. It is a mere formality
(D) None of the above

163. Principle: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or not capable of being made certain, are void.
Facts: A horse was bought for a certain price coupled with a promise to give Rs.500 more if the horse is proved lucky.
(A) This is a valid agreement.
(B) This agreement is void for uncertainty because it is very difficult to determine what luck, bad or good, the horse has brought to the buyer.
(C) The agreement is partially valid and partially void.
(D) None of the above.

164. Principle: Mere silence as to the facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not a fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, on close examination it is found to be the duty of the person keeping silent to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.
Facts: X sells by auction to Y, a horse which X knows to be of unsound state of mind. X says nothing to Y about the horse’s unsound state of mind. Give the correct answer-
(A) X can be held liable for fraud.
(B) X can be held liable for misrepresentation
(C) X cannot be held liable, because he did not say anything positive about the mental state of the horse.
(D) X cannot be held liable because it is the buyer who must be aware of the things.

165. Principle: Any direct physical interference with goods in somebody’s possession without lawful justification is called trespass of goods.
Facts: Z purchased a car from a person who had no title to it and sent it to a garage for repair. X believing wrongly that the car was his, removed it from the garage.
(A) X can be held responsible for trespass of goods
(B) X cannot be held responsible for trespass of goods as he was under a wrong belief.
(C) X has not committed any wrong.
(D) None of the above.

Instructions (166 to 180 ): Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

166. Assertion (A): A void contract is not necessarily illegal
Reason (R): Every illegal contract is void.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

167. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26th November, 1949.
Reason (R): Law Day is celebrated in India on 26th November every year.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

168. Assertion (A): The state shall not make any law, which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by Part III (Fundamental Rights) and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
Reason (R): The fundamental rights are the rights reserved by the people and for this reason they are eternal and sacrosanct.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

169. Assertion (A): Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Reason (R): Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights are both complementary to each other but in case of any controversy fundamental rights will prevail.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

170. Assertion (A): All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Reason (R): Institutions established by the minorities are not entitled to governmental aid and government is not under an obligation to give aid.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

171. Assertion (A): The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the fundamental
rights is guaranteed as a fundamental right.
Reason (R): Supreme Court of India has been appointed as the guardian of the Constitution.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

172. Assertion (A): If the budget presented to the Rajya Sabha in not passed in the stipulated period, the budget proposals are not affected.
Reason (R): The Lok Sabha is more powerful, in financial matters, than the Rajya Sabha.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

173. Assertion (A): In the Event of violation of any legal right (tort) the aggrieved party is entitled to recover unliquidated damages.
Reason (R): The object of awarding damages to the aggrieved party is to put him in the same position in which he would have been if the wrong would not have been committed. Damages are therefore, assessed on that basis.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

174. Assertion (A): During inflation, there is increase in money supply and rise in price level.
Reason (R): The rise in prices is due to shortage in supply of essential consumer goods.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

175. Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of the act, attacks Y, who in self defense and in order to ward off the attack hits him
thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an offence.
Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense against X under Section 98 of the Indian Penal Code.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

176. Assertion (A): X and Y independently entertained the idea to kill Z. Accordingly; each of them separately inflicted wounds on Z who died as a consequence. X and Y are liable for murder under 341 IPC.
Reason (R): When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable as if the whole act was done by him alone.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

177. Assertion (A): A person claims compensation for his non-gratuitous act.
Reason (R): A person who enjoys benefit from lawful, non-gratuitous act of another must compensate him even though there is no contract.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

178. Assertion (A): Freedom of Speech is the most important civil liberty of people in a democratic polity.
Reason (R): State can regulate free speech in the interest of public order.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

179. Assertion (A): Austin’s concept of law is known as imperative theory
Reason (R): Austin emphasized on the commanding character of law.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

180. Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act must have been done with a view to fulfill the common object of an unlawful assembly.
Reason (R): Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of that assembly liable.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

181. The following are enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India
I. Equality of status and of opportunity
II. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
III. Justice-social, economic and political
IV. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual
V. Unity and Integrity of the nation
Which of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the preamble?

182. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Right to free and compulsory education for all children of the age of 6 to 14 years is:
(A) a fundamental right enforceable in law
(B) a fundamental duty
(C) a directive principle of state policy
(D) a fundamental right which, however, can be enforced only if the state makes an enabling legislation

183. Affirmative action connotes:
I. Measures taken by the state to help the socially disadvantaged groups
II. Positive discrimination
III. Strict quotas for the socially and educationally backward class in school/college admissions and jobs.
Which of the above mentioned is true?
(A) I and II only (B) II only (C) I, II and III (D) II and III only

184. Identify the correct statement:
(A) Federalism implies a system of government which embodies a division of powers between a central and a number of regional authorities
(B) Federalism implies a system of government which embodies a division of powers between Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
(C) Federalism implies a system of Government which embodies Parliamentary supremacy
(D) None of these

185. Consider the following statements:
I. In a recent Supreme Court verdict pronounced by Justice Markandeya Katju and Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra, the court upheld the constitutionality of the Haj subsidy
II. Muslims are not the only beneficiaries of the secular state’s generosity. Hindus have also received substantial financial support from the Government With reference to the statements mentioned above, which of the following is correct?
(A) I only (B) II only (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

186. X, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him as his housekeeper. In return, B agreed to pay X Rs. 500 per month for living in adultery and Rs. 500 per month for housekeeping. The agreement is
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Void as to the first object but valid with respect to the second object
(D) Unlawful as being opposed to public policy

187. Ramu applied for the post of Director in an organization. The governing body of the organization passed a resolution appointing him to the post. After the meeting, one of the members of the governing body informed him privately of the resolution. Subsequently, the resolution was rescinded. Ramu claims damages. Which one of the following is the correct legal proposition in the case?
(A) Ramu cannot claim damages as he had not resigned from his existing post in anticipation of getting the appointment letter
(B) Ramu cannot claim damages as there was no formal communication
(C) Ramu can claim damages as governing body cannot rescind the resolution once passed
(D) Ramu can claim damages as there was private communication

188. The Railway authorities allowed a train to be over crowded. In consequence, a legitimate passenger Mr. X got his pocket picked. Choose the appropriate answer:
(A) Mr. X can sue the Railway authorities for the loss suffered
(B) Mr. X cannot sue because he had given his consent to travel in a over-crowded train
(C) Mr. X cannot sue railway authorities because there was no infringement of his legal right and mere fact that the loss was caused does not give rise to a cause of action
(D) None of these

189. Z is carried off by a tiger. X fires at the tiger, knowing that the shot might kill Z, but with no intention to kill Z, and in good faith trying to save Z. X’s shot, however, gives Z a mortal wound. Choose the correct option –
(A) X has committed an offence of a grievous nature.
(B) X has no moral duty to save Z therefore he can be held liable.
(C) X has not committed any offence, as the act was in good faith and for the benefit of Z.
(D) None of the above

190. Ms. Usha wants to file a suit against Bhagyalaxmi Theatre praying for a permanent injunction (stay order) restraining the theatre from running the film named “Jai Santoshi Maa”. Her contention is that the film hurt her religious feelings and sentiments as Goddess Saraswati, Laxmi and Parvati were depicted as jealous and were ridiculed.
(A) She cannot file a suit because injury to religious feelings is not a legally recognized right.
(B) She cannot file a suit because the Theatre has a fundamental right to speech and expression.
(C) She can file a suit as injury to religious feelings has been legally recognized as a right (injuria sine damnum)
(D) It is a case of complete judicial discretion.

191. Match schedule one and two and choose the appropriate answer-

Schedule I.................................... Schedule II
i. Concurrent list .......................1. Constitution of Japan
ii. Rule of Law ..........................2. Constitution of Ireland
iii. Directive Principle of State Policy .3. British Constitution
iv. Procedure established by law .........4. Constitution of Australia 
....i ii iii iv
(A) 1  2  3   4
(B) 2  4  3   1
(C) 1  3  4   2
(D) 4  3  2   1

192. P, Q and R made a joint promise to give S a sum of Rs.3000. S recovered the whole amount from P. Q was declared insolvent and cannot give anything. Which statement out of the following is correct?
(A) P cannot get anything from R. (B) P can recover Rs.1000 from R.
(C) P can recover Rs.1500 from R (D) P can recover Rs.2000 from R.

193. X went to Y’s house and forgot his bag which contained 1 kg sweets. Y’s children consumed the sweets. Decide the liability of Y.
(A) Y is bound to pay the price of sweets to X
(B) Y is not bound to pay anything
(C) Y is bound to pay half the price of sweets.
(D) Y would not have to pay anything because X loves Y’s children.

194. Which one of the following is not correct?
(A) Freedom of speech and expression includes freedom of press.
(B) Right to life and personal liberty includes right to carry on any trade and profession
(C) Right to equality includes the principles of natural justice
(D) Freedom of conscience includes the wearing and carrying of kirpans by the Sikhs

195. Y makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds, after opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. Choose the appropriate answer.
(A) Y is not guilty of attempt to theft because the box was empty.
(B) Y is guilty of attempt to commit theft.
(C) Y is guilty of trespass.
(D) Y is not guilty of any offence.

196. A lady wanted to get a railway ticket but finding a crowd near the ticket window at the station, asked Raju, who was near the window, to get a ticket for her and handed him money for the same. Raju took the money and instead of getting the ticket, ran away with it. What offence has been committed by Raju?
(A) No offence (B) Criminal breach of trust
(C) Criminal misappropriation (D) Theft

197. The Right to Equality is guaranteed by-
(A) Article 14 to 18 (B) Article 14
(C) Article 14 and 15 (D) Article 14, 15 and 16

198. Mr. Samay was severely hurt while working in his factory and fell unconscious. He was rushed to a hospital by his fellow workers. In the hospital (at emergency/casualty ward) the doctors opined that he should be operated immediately. While conducting preliminary examinations, he was found to be HIV positive. The doctors are in a dilemma regarding what should they do first-
(A) Doctors should operate first
(B) Doctors should inform his family members
(C) Doctors should inform his employers
(D) Doctors should not inform anyone because it would violate patient’s right of privacy.

199. Match the schedule I and II and choose the appropriate answer-
Schedule I ………Schedule II
i Republic ……….1. Head of the state is elected by the people
ii Secular ………..2. State does not recognize any religion as religion of the state
iii Democracy ….3.  The government which gets authority from the will of the people
……i ii iii
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 1 3 2
(C) 2 3 1
(D) 3 2 1

200. In which of the following cases can a Constitutional amendment be passed just by a simple majority in Parliament?
(A) Election matters (B) Change in the name and boundaries of states
(C) Powers of the President (D) None of the above

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