Sample Paper for IISER Entrance Exam (IISER Aptitude Test)
The paper consists of questions of Biology, Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. Sample questions asked are as follows.
1. If an interphase cell is treated with cyanide (a metabolic poison), the cell does not divide by mitosis. However, if cyanide is added right after mitosis has started, the same cell completes mitosis. Which of the following explains this observation?
A. Metabolic activity ceases during mitosis
B. Cell division does not require metabolic activity
C. Energy required for mitosis is produced and stored in the cell during interphase
D. Mitotic cells make factors that make them resistant to cyanide
2. The symplast pathway is most easily disrupted when
A. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root hair cells malfunction
B. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root cortex malfunction
C. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root endodermis malfunction
D. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the guard cells malfunction
3. Paleontological studies use fossil pollen because
A. Pollen retains viability for long periods of time unlike male gametes in animals
B. The intine of pollen is very hard and stable and can be used in rescuing plant populations on a decline
C. The exine of pollen retains its structure for long periods of time
D. Soil pollen banks, unlike soil seed banks, stay dormant for long periods of time
4. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
A. Mating is random in the population
B. There are no mutations
C. All individuals have an equal opportunity to survive and reproduce
D. Immigration and emigration occurs in the population
5. The lens of many vertebrate eyes is a crystallized fonn of a protein that also functions in digestion as a metabolic enzyme. This shows that
A. Vision and digestion co-evolved
B. Digestion necessarily evolved prior to vision since it is a more basic function
C. Evolution in opportunistic
D. Vision and digestion evolved around the same time
6. On which segment of the human chromosome is the enzyme Reverse Transcriptase located?
7. Muscle X and muscle Y are of the same size, but muscle X is capable of much finer control than
muscle Y. Which of the following is likely to be true of muscle X?
A. It is controlled by more neurons than muscle Y
B. It contains fewer motor units than muscle Y
C. It is controlled by fewer neurons than muscle Y
D. Each of its motor units consists of more cells than the motor units of muscle Y
8. A National Park associated with rhinoceros is
D. Valley of Flowers
9. During HIV infection
A. Number of helper T-lymphocytes increase
B. Number of helper T-lymphocytes decrease
C. Number of red blood cells increase
D. Number of red blood cells decrease
10. If the blood groups of the father and mother are AB and B respectively, then which one of the following statements is true with respect to their children’s blood group?
A. Blood group is either A or B
B. Blood group is either B or AB
C. Blood group is AB only
D. Blood group can be A or B or AB
11. The sequence of DNA is 5’-ATGGTTCCATC-3’. What is the sequence of the complimentary RNA strand?
12. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)?
A. Secondary treatment of effluent decreases the BOD
B. Secondary treatment of effluent increases the BOD
C. Secondary treatment of effluent does not change the BOD
D. Secondary treatment of effluent first increases and then decreases the BOD
13. Which of the following is a general nature of plant-pollinator interactions?
A. Tight one to one co-evolutionary partnership
B. A plant species is pollinated by a few pollinator species
C. Plants rely on deceit to achieve pollination by pollinator species
D. Most pollinators benefit the plant by providing pollinator services, but disadvantage the plant at the same time by laying eggs into the flower and thereby negatively affects fruit formation
14. Sickle cell anemia is a disease resulting from altered haemoglobin structure. This alteration is
because of the replacement of a glutamic acid with valine. Indentify the protein structure level
where this change has been made
15. Which of the following life history adaptations is least likely when predation pressure, on a fish species that grows in size continuously throughout its lifespan, is concentrated on the larger individuals
A. Allocate more resources preferentially to early reproduction than to growth
B. Allocate more resources preferentially to growth than to early reproduction
C. Sexual maturity at an early age
D. Produce more offspring in very few reproductive seasons
16. What is the potential of a cell containing two hydrogen electrodes, in which the anode is in contact with 10-5M HCl and the cathode is in contact with 1000 times the concentration of HCl as that of the anode?
A. 0.36 V.
B. 0.18 V.
C. -0.36 V.
D. -0.18 V.
17. Phosphorus pentoxide, P4O10, has each phosphorus linked to:
A. 5 oxygen atoms with P – P bonds.
B. 5 oxygen atoms.
C. 4 oxygen atoms with P – P bonds.
D. 4 oxygen atoms.
18. The radius of an atom of He is 0.05 nm. Assuming that one mole of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at STP, the fraction of the volume occupied by the atoms in a mole of He gas at STP is:
A. 1.4 x 10-4 .
B. 1.4 x 10-5
C. 7.1 x 10-4
D. 7.1 X 10-5
19. The number of degenerate orbitals present in an energy level of a H-atom characterized by E = -R/16 where R is the Rydberg constant is:
20. Formation of ammonia in Haber’s process, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 (ΔH = -ve) can be increased by:
A. increase in temperature and pressure.
B. increase in temperature.
C. increase in the concentration of ammonia.
D. increase in pressure.
21. Choose the correct ordering for the dipole moments of the following molecules:
A. CO2 ≤ BF3 < H2O < H2S.
B. BF3 < CO2 < H2S < H2O.
C. CO2 = BF3 < H2S < H2O.
D. CO2 < BF3 < H2S < H2O.
22. Which among the following complexes of Mn given below has the spin only magnetic moment
(µs) value of 5.9 BM?
C. [Mn(en)3]2+ ; en = ethylenediamine
23. Schottky as well as Frenkel defects are observed in:
24. A black mineral A on heating in air gives a gas B. The mineral A on reaction with H2SO4 gives a gas C and a compound D. Bubbling C into an aqueous solution of B gives white turbidity. The aqueous solution of compound D, on exposure to air, with NH4SCN gives a red compound E. The compounds A and E respectively, are:
A. PbS and Pb(SCN)2.
B. NiS and Ni(SCN)2.
C. FeS and Fe(SCN)3.
D. CoS and Co(SCN)2.
11. The number of integer values of k for which the equation 7cosΘ + 5sinΘ = 2k + 1 has real solutions is:
12. How many 2 x 2 matrices A satisfy both A3 = I2 and A2 = At, where h denotes the 2 x 2 identity matrix and At denotes the transpose of A?
13. Let C be the circle that touches the X-axis and whose centre coincides with the circumcentre of the triangle defined by 4|x|+ 3y = 12; y≥ 0. How many points with both co-ordinates integers are there in the interior of C?
14. Let f : R → R be a function such that f(x + y)+ f(x – y)= f(xy) for all x,y ∈ R. Then f is:
A. Strictly increasing.
B. Strictly decreasing.
C. Identically zero.
D. Constant but not necessarily zero.
15. A body cools from 67°C to 37°C. If this takes time t when the surrounding temperature is 27°C, what will be the time taken if the surrounding temperature is 7°C?
16. Three rods (lengths 2l, l, l) made of the same material and having the same area of cross-section are joined as shown in figure. The end points A, B and C are maintained at constant temperatures 100°C, 50°C and 0°C, respectively. Assuming that there is no loss of heat from the surface of the rods, find the temperature that the junction P ultimately reaches.
17. A bar magnet of mass m is suspended from the ceiling with a massless string and is set into oscillations. A gold metal plate is brought close to the oscillating pendulum. The oscillations will damp due to induction of eddy currents in the metal. Which one of the following statements is true if the gold plate is replaced by a steel plate having the same physical dimensions. (Of the two, note that gold is a better conductor of electricity.)
A. the amplitude of oscillations will decrease faster
B. the amplitude of oscillations will decrease slower
C. the amplitude of oscillations will increase
D. the amplitude of oscillations will not be affected
18. A charged particle is moving away from a uniformly charged infinite wire along a direction perpendicular to it. Initially, the particle is at a distance L from the wire moving with a velocity U. When it is at a distance 2L, its velocity is found to be 2u. What will be the velocity of the particle when it is at a distance 4L from the wire ?
A. √6 u
B. √7 u
C. √8 u
D. √9 u
19. A steel wire of length 1 meter is under a tension of 10 newtons. The speed of the transverse wave excited in this wire is v. The wire is replaced by another steel wire of the same length but half the diameter. What should be the tension in the replaced wire, so that, the speed of the wave stays the same?
A. 40 N
C. 5 N
20. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. In which resistor the amount of power dissipated is the largest?
21. A biconvex lens with focal length f in air and refractive index of 1.5 is floating on the surface of a deep pond of water (refractive index 1.33). If an object is placed at a height of 2f vertically above the lens, then the distance between the lens and the image is
C. less than 2f
D. greater than 2f
IISER Aptitude Test Model Paper
The complete sample paper is given below.
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